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alexira [117]
2 years ago
8

Consider a circuit element, with terminals a and b, that has vab= -12V and iab= 3A. Over a period of 2 seconds, how much charge

moves through the element? If electrons carry the charge, which terminal do they enter? How much energy is transferred? Is it delivered to the element or taken from it?
Engineering
1 answer:
miv72 [106K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a) 6 coulombs

b) The electrons carrying the charge will enter at point b with respect to element and this is because electrons follow in opposite direction of current

c) = -72 joules

Energy is taken from element

Explanation:

Given data:

V ab = -12 v

I ab = 3A

period ( t ) = 2 seconds

a) determine how much charge moves through the element

q = I * t

  = 3 * 2 = 6 coulombs

b) The electrons carrying the charge will enter at point b with respect to element and this is because electrons follow in opposite direction of current

c) determine how much energy is transferred

= Vab * Iab * t

= -12 * 3 * 2

= -72 joules

Energy is taken from element

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A fatigue test is performed on 69 rotating specimens made of 5160H steel. The measured number of cycles to failure (L in kcycles
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Answer:

(a) Mean = 122.9, σ = 30.071

(b) No. of failed specimens at less than 115k cycles are 27.

(c) μ = 39.07

Explanation:

We are given:

L  60  70  80  90  100  110  120  130  140  150  160  170  180  190  200  210

f    2     1    3     5     8     12     6     10     8     5     2      3      2      1       0      1

(a) First we need to calculate the mean and standard deviation. The formula for calculating mean is:

Mean = ∑fx/∑f

And for standard deviation we have:

S.D. = √Var

Var = ∑fx²/∑f - (Mean)²

∑fx = (2*60) + (1*70) + (3*80) + (5*90) + (8*100) + (12*110) + (6*120) + (10*130) + (8*140) + (5*150) + (2*160) + (3*170) + (2*180) + (1*190) + (0*200) + (1*210)

         = 120 + 70 + 240 + 450 + 800 + 1320 + 720 + 1300 + 1120 + 750 + 320 + 510 + 360 + 190 + 0 + 210

∑fx = 8480

Mean = ∑fx/∑f

          = 8480/69

Mean = 122.9  

∑fx² = (2*60²) + (1*70²) + (3*80²) + (5*90²) + (8*100²) + (12*110²) + (6*120²) + (10*130²) + (8*140²) + (5*150²) + (2*160²) + (3*170²) + (2*180²) + (1*190²) + (0*200²) + (1*210²)

   =7200+4900+19200+40500+80000+145200+86400+169000+156800+112500+51200+86700+64800+36100+0+44100

∑fx² = 1104600

Var = ∑fx²/∑f - (Mean)²

     = 1104600/69 - (122.9)²

     = 16008.69565 - 15104.41

Var = 904.2856

S.D = √Var

σ = √904.2856

σ = 30.071

(b) Let X be the number of failed specimen.

We will use the z-score to calculate the probability. The formula for z-score is:

z = (X-μ)/σ

P(X<115) = P(z<(115-122.9)/30.071)

              = P(z<-0.26)

Using the normal distribution probability table, we can compute the value of  P(z<-0.26).

P(X<115) = 0.3974

So, no. of failed specimens at less than 115k cycles are: 0.3974*69 = 27 specimens

(c) σ = 30.071

P(x<115) = 0.99

P(z<(115-μ)/30.071) = 0.99

From the normal distribution table we find that 0.99 lies between the z values 2.52 and 2.33. Hence, we get 2.525 as the z-value at which the probability is 0.99.

z = (x-μ)/σ

2.525 = (115 - μ)/30.071

75.93 = 115 - μ

μ = 115 - 75.93

μ = 39.07

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X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.
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It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

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