Answer:
a) w = 25.1 rad/s, b) θ = 0.9599 rad
, c) α = 328.1 rad/s² d) t= 0.0765 s
Explanation: Let's work on this exercise with the equations of angular kinematics
a) The angular velocity is
w = 4.00 rev / s (2π rad / 1 rev)
w = 25.1 rad/s
b) let's reduce the angle of degrees to radians
θ = 55 ° (π rad / 180 °)
θ = 0.9599 rad
c) Let's use the initial angular velocity as the system part of the rest is zero
w² = w₀² + 2 α θ
α = w² / 2 θ
α = 25.1²/2 0.9599
α = 328.1 rad / s²
d)
w = w₀ + α t
t = w / α
t = 25.1 / 328.1
t= 0.0765 s
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The mechanical advantage is always less than 1 because the force needed to move an object is always greater than the weight of the object.
Answer: No, The energy will remain the same
Explanation: Doubling the mass and leaving the amplitude unchanged won't have any effect on the total energy of the system.
At maximum displacement, E=0.5kA^2
Where E = total energy
K = spring constant
A = Amplitude
From the formula above : Total Energy is independent of mass,. Therefore, total energy won't be affected by Doubling the mass value of the object.
Also when the object is at a displacement 'x' from its equilibrium position.
E = Potential Energy(P.E) + Kinetic Energy(K.E)
P.E = 0.5kx^2
Where x = displacement from equilibrium position
E = Total Energy
K. E= E-0.5kx^2
From the relation above, total energy is independent of its mass and therefore has no effect on the total energy.
Answer:
B. add more loops of wire between the magnets
Explanation:
this would increase the magnetic force acting on the rod therefore increasing
Answer:
Value of acceleration in each case is
Explanation:
According to newton's law :
...equation 1.
In the given case, Force by both the children - Friction force .
Putting value of F in equation 1.
Now, if friction force = 20 N.
Therefore,
Putting value of F and a in equation 1.
Hence , this is the required solution.