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3 years ago

What is the basic formula for actual mechanical advantage?

Engineering

1 answer:

slavikrds [6]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Mechanical Advantage Formula

The efficiency of a machine is equal to the ratio of its output to its input. It is also equal to the ratio of the actual and theoretical MAs. But, it does not mean that low-efficiency machines are of limited use. An automobile jack, for example, have to overcome a great deal of friction and therefore it has low efficiency. But still, it is extremely valuable because small effort can be applied to lift a great weight.

Also, in another way the mechanical advantage is the force generated by a machine to the force applied to it which is applied in assessing the performance of the machine.

The mechanical advantage formula is:

MA = FBFA

Explanation:

MAmechanical advantageFBthe force of the object

FAthe effort to overcome the force

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The best penetration is achieved with DCEN current.<br> True or false

GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

The best penetration is achieved with dcen current. Mild steel is expensive and requires the most amount of cleaning. Copper-coated steel welding rods are not used for gas tungsten arc welding because they will continue the weld or electrode.

6 0

3 years ago

The 30-kg gear is subjected to a force of P=(20t)N where t is in seconds. Determine the angular velocity of the gear at t=4s sta

tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

$\omega =\frac{24}{1.14375}=20.983\frac{rad}{s}$

Explanation:

Previous concepts

Angular momentum. If we consider a particle of mass m, with velocity v, moving under the influence of a force F. The angular momentum about point O is defined as the “moment” of the particle’s linear momentum, L, about O. And the correct formula is:

$H_o =r x mv=rxL$

Applying Newton’s second law to the right hand side of the above equation, we have that r ×ma = r ×F =

MO, where MO is the moment of the force F about point O. The equation expressing the rate of change of angular momentum is this one:

MO = H˙ O

Principle of Angular Impulse and Momentum

The equation MO = H˙ O gives us the instantaneous relation between the moment and the time rate of change of angular momentum. Imagine now that the force considered acts on a particle between time t1 and time t2. The equation MO = H˙ O can then be integrated in time to obtain this:

$\int_{t_1}^{t_2}M_O dt = \int_{t_1}^{t_2}H_O dt=H_0t2 -H_0t1$

Solution to the problem

For this case we can use the principle of angular impulse and momentum that states "The mass moment of inertia of a gear about its mass center is $I_o =mK^2_o =30kg(0.125m)^2 =0.46875 kgm^2$ ".

If we analyze the staritning point we see that the initial velocity can be founded like this:

$v_o =\omega r_{OIC}=\omega (0.15m)$

And if we look the figure attached we can use the point A as a reference to calculate the angular impulse and momentum equation, like this:

$H_Ai +\sum \int_{t_i}^{t_f} M_A dt =H_Af$

$0+\sum \int_{0}^{4} 20t (0.15m) dt =0.46875 \omega + 30kg[\omega(0.15m)](0.15m)$

And if we integrate the left part and we simplify the right part we have

$1.5(4^2)-1.5(0^2) = 0.46875\omega +0.675\omega=1.14375\omega$

And if we solve for $\omega$ we got:

$\omega =\frac{24}{1.14375}=20.983\frac{rad}{s}$

8 0

3 years ago

According to fire regulations in a town, the pressure drop in a commercial steel, horizontal pipe must not exceed 2.0 psi per 25

bonufazy [111]

Answer:

6.37 inch

Explanation:

Thinking process:

We need to know the flow rate of the fluid through the cross sectional pipe. Let this rate be denoted by Q.

To determine the pressure drop in the pipe:

Using the Bernoulli equation for mass conservation:

$\frac{P1}{\rho } + \frac{v_{2} }{2g} +z_{1} = \frac{P2}{\rho } + \frac{v2^{2} }{2g} + z_{2} + f\frac{l}{D} \frac{v^{2} }{2g}$

thus

$\frac{P1-P2}{\rho } = f\frac{l}{D} \frac{v^{2} }{2g}$

The largest pressure drop (P1-P2) will occur with the largest f, which occurs with the smallest Reynolds number, Re or the largest V.

Since the viscosity of the water increases with temperature decrease, we consider coldest case at T = 50⁰F

from the tables

Re= 2.01 × 10⁵

Hence, f = 0.018

Therefore, pressure drop, (P1-P2)/p = 2.70 ft

This occurs at ae presure change of 1.17 psi

Correlating with the chart, we find that the diameter will be D= 0.513

= <u>6.37 in Ans</u>

7 0

4 years ago

This is hard please help me you will give brainlist

Musya8 [376]

It spirals clockwise

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A heat engine that rejects waste heat to a sink at 520 R has a thermal efficiency of 35 percent and a second- law efficiency of

xeze [42]

Answer:

The source temperature is 1248 R.

Explanation:

Second law efficiency of the engine is the ratio of actual efficiency to the maximum possible efficiency that is reversible efficiency.

Given:

Temperature of the heat sink is 520 R.

Second law efficiency is 60%.

Actual thermal efficiency is 35%.

Calculation:

Step1

Reversible efficiency is calculated as follows:

$\eta_{II}=\frac{\eta_{a}}{\eta_{rev}}$

$0.6=\frac{0.35}{\eta_{rev}}$

$\eta_{rev}=0.5834$

Step2

Source temperature is calculated as follows:

$\eta_{rev}=1-\frac{T_{L}}{T}$

$\eta_{rev}=1-\frac{520}{T}$

$0.5834=1-\frac{520}{T}$

T = 1248 R.

The heat engine is shown below:

Thus, the source temperature is 1248 R.

6 0

3 years ago