Answer:
false statement : b ) For the motion of a cart on an incline plane having a coefficient of kinetic friction of 0.5, the magnitude of the change in kinetic energy equals the magnitude of the change in gravitational potential energy
Explanation:
mechanical energy = potential energy + kinetic energy = constant
differentiating both side
Δ potential energy + Δ kinetic energy = 0
Δ potential energy = - Δ kinetic energy
first statement is true.
Friction is a non conservative force so inter-conversion of potential and kinetic energy is not possible in that case. In case of second option, the correct relation is as follows
change in gravitational potential energy = change in kinetic energy + work done against friction .
So given 2 nd option is incorrect.
In case of no change in gravitational energy , work done is equal to
change in kinetic energy.
Complete Question
The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image
Answer:
The maximum emf is 
The emf induced at t = 1.00 s is 
The maximum rate of change of magnetic flux is 
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The number of turns is N = 44 turns
The length of the coil is 
The width of the coil is 
The magnetic field is 
The angular speed is 
Generally the induced emf is mathematically represented as

Where
is the maximum induced emf and this is mathematically represented as

Where
is the magnetic flux
N is the number of turns
A is the area of the coil which is mathematically evaluated as

Substituting values


substituting values into the equation for maximum induced emf


given that the time t = 1.0sec
substituting values into the equation for induced emf 


The maximum induced emf can also be represented mathematically as

Where
is the magnetic flux and
is the maximum rate at which magnetic flux changes the value of the maximum rate of change of magnetic flux is

Answer:
182 to 3 s.f
Explanation:
Workdone for an adiabatic process is given as
W = K(V₂¹⁻ʸ - V₁¹⁻ʸ)/(1 - γ)
where γ = ratio of specific heats. For carbon dioxide, γ = 1.28
For an adiabatic process
P₁V₁ʸ = P₂V₂ʸ = K
K = P₁V₁ʸ
We need to calculate the P₁ using ideal gas equation
P₁V₁ = mRT₁
P₁ = (mRT₁/V₁)
m = 2.80 g = 0.0028 kg
R = 188.92 J/kg.K
T₁ = 27°C = 300 K
V₁ = 500 cm³ = 0.0005 m³
P₁ = (0.0028)(188.92)(300)/0.0005
P₁ = 317385.6 Pa
K = P₁V₁¹•²⁸ = (317385.6)(0.0005¹•²⁸) = 18.89
W = K(V₂¹⁻ʸ - V₁¹⁻ʸ)/(1 - γ)
V₁ = 0.0005 m³
V₂ = 2.10 dm³ = 0.002 m³
1 - γ = 1 - 1.28 = - 0.28
W =
18.89 [(0.002)⁻⁰•²⁸ - (0.0005)⁻⁰•²⁸]/(-0.28)
W = -67.47 (5.698 - 8.4)
W = 182.3 = 182 to 3 s.f
Answer:
They sh0uld g0 t0 the reactor and then, see what the issue is...
Explanation:
then, see if they can fix the problem, im sorry if its wr0ng.