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AysviL [449]
3 years ago
10

A box is placed on a conveyor belt that moves with a constant speed of 1.05 m/s. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the

box and the belt is 0.770. How much time does it take for the box to stop sliding relative to the belt and how far does the box move in this time?
Physics
1 answer:
sveticcg [70]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The box stops in 0.139 seconds, after moving 7.29cm (0.0729m) backwards relative to the belt.

Explanation:

As the box is initially at rest relative to the earth, it is moving backwards with a speed of 1.05m/s relative to the belt. Then, the frictional force acts on the box to make it stop relative to the belt. So, we first have to write the equations of motion of the box in each axis:

x: f_k=ma\implies a=\frac{f_k}{m} \\\\y: N-mg=0\implies N=mg

Since the frictional force f_k is equal to f_k=\mu_k N=\mu_k mg, then we have that the acceleration is:

a=\frac{\mu_k mg}{m}=\mu_k g

Now, from the definition of acceleration we get:

a=\frac{v-v_0}{t}\implies t=\frac{v-v_0}{a}

And, as the final velocity is zero because the box gets to a stop, we have:

t=-\frac{v_0}{a}=-\frac{v_0}{\mu_k g}

(Don't worry about the negative sign. It will disappear because the initial velocity is also negative, since we take the box initially moving backwards)

Then, plugging in the given values, we calculate the time:

t=-\frac{(-1.05m/s)}{0.770(9.81m/s^{2})}=0.139s

In words, the time the box takes to stop sliding relative to the belt is 0.139s.

The displacement of the box in this time, is given by the kinematics formula:

v^{2}=v_0^{2}+2ax\implies x=-\frac{v_0^{2}}{2\mu_kg}

Finally, we calculate the displacement:

x=-\frac{(1.05m/s)^{2} }{2(0.770)(9.81m/s^2)}=-0.0729m=-7.29cm

This means that the box moves 7.29cm backwards relative to the belt.

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Substitute the known values,

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irakobra [83]

Answer:

Explanation:

1 )

Here

wave length used that is λ = 580 nm

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distance between slit d = .46 mm

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= 580 x 10⁻⁹ / .46 x 10⁻³

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Angular position of second order interference maxima

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For angular position of θ1

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8a. What is the equivalent resistance of the following circuit?
ollegr [7]

Answer: Take your pick

Explanation:

if they are all in parallel 1 /(1/100 + 1/300 + 1/50) = 30 Ω

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if 100 is in parallel with 2 in series 1 / (1/(50 + 300) + 1/100) = 77.777...Ω

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If 50 is in series with 2 in parallel 50 + 1/(1/100 + 1/300) = 125 Ω

If 100 is in series with 2 in parallel 100 + 1/(1/50 + 1/300) = 142.857...Ω

If 300 is in series with 2 in parallel 300 + 1/(1/50 + 1/100) = 333.333...Ω

If they are all in series 100 + 300 + 50 = 450 Ω

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