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umka2103 [35]
3 years ago
9

Planets A and B have the same size, but planet A is half the mass of planet B.

Physics
2 answers:
Yuri [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Choice B) You would weigh less on planet A because it has less mass than  planet B.

=====================================================

Explanation:

Weight is due to the force of gravity. The higher the force of gravity, the more pull and therefore the larger weight.

Imagine that gravity was basically a rope pulling a person down. The higher the force of gravity, the stronger the pull on the rope.

Due to planet A having less mass compared to planet B, this means the force of gravity on planet A is smaller, and therefore a person on planet A will weigh less compared to planet B.

-------------

As a more real world example, the moon's mass is less than the Earth's mass. It turns out that weights on the moon are roughly 1/6 of what they would be on Earth. This means that if a person weighed 180 pounds on Earth, then they would weigh about 180*(1/6) = 180/6 = 30 pounds on the moon. This is why astronauts on the moon are able to jump higher and have a bigger bounce in their step, even if they aren't even trying to jump so high.

Ronch [10]3 years ago
6 0
Because the weight of the plant depends on its mass and plant A has less mass then plant B which makes it lighter
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Suppose that the height of the incline is h = 14.7 m. Find the speed at the bottom for each of the following objects. 1.solid sp
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

1. 14.4 m/s  2. 13.2 m/s 3. 12.0 m/s 4. 13.9 m/s

Explanation:  

Assuming no friction present, the different objects roll without slipping, so there is a constant relationship between linear and angular velocity, as follows:

ω= v/r

If no friction exists, the change in total kinetic energy must be equal in magnitude to the change in the gravitational potential energy:

∆K = -∆U

 ½ *m*v² + ½* I* ω²  = m*g*h

Simplifying and replacing the value of the angular velocity:

½ * v² + ½ I *(v/r)² = g*h (1)

In order to answer the question, we just need to replace h by the value given, and I (moment of inertia) for the value for each different object, as follows:

  •  Solid Sphere I = 2/5* m *r²

                Replacing in (1):

                ½ * v² + ½ (2/5 *m*r²) *(v/r)² = g*h

                Replacing by the value given for h, and solving for v:

                v = √(10/7*9.8 m/s2*14.7 m)  = 14. 4 m/s

  • Spherical shell I=2/3*m*r²

                Replacing in (1):

                ½ * v² + ½ (2/3 *m*r²) *(v/r)² = g*h

                Replacing by the value given for h, and solving for v:

                v = √(6/5*9.8 m/s2*14.7 m)  = 13.2 m/s

  • Hoop   I= m*r²

                Replacing in (1):

                ½ * v² + ½ (m*r²) *(v/r)² = g*h

               Replacing by the value given for h, and solving for v:

               v = √(9.8 m/s2*14.7 m)  = 12.0 m/s

  • Cylinder I = 1/2 * m* r²

                 Replacing in (1):

                ½ * v² + ½ (1/2 *m*r²) *(v/r)²= g*h

                 Replacing by the value given for h, and solving for v:

                v = 2*√(1/3*9.8 m/s2*14.7 m)  = 13.9 m/s

5 0
4 years ago
un avión se mueve en línea recta a una velocidad constante de 400 km/h durante 1,5h de su recorrido ¿que distancia recorrió en e
Amanda [17]

The distance covered by the plane is 600 km

Explanation:

The motion of the plane is a uniform motion, so at constant velocity, therefore we can use the following equation

d=vt

where

d is the distance covered

v is the velocity

t is the time interval considered

For the plane in this problem,

v = 400 km/h

t = 1.5 h

Substituting, we find the distance covered:

d=(400)(1.5)=600 km

Learn more about distance:

brainly.com/question/3969582

#LearnwithBrainly

6 0
3 years ago
How much work is done by the gravitational force when a 265-kg pile driver falls 2.80m?​
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

i dont know why are u asking me

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A small 0.13 kg metal ball is tied to a very light (essentially massless) string that is 0.70 m long. The string is attached to
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Answer:

Explanation:

Let l be th length of pendulum

loss of height

= mg ( l - l cos50)

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v = √[2gl( 1- cos50)]

= √( 2 x 9.8 x .7 x ( 1-cos50)

= 2.2 m / s

speed at the bottom = 2.2 m /s

b )

centripetal acceleration

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= 2.2 x 2.2 / .7

= 6.9 m /s²

C )

If T be the tension

T - mg = mv² / r

T = mg + mv² / r

= .13 X 9.8 + .13 X 6.9

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7 0
4 years ago
Why can't I get a new phone
Alenkasestr [34]

Answer:

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Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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