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pashok25 [27]
3 years ago
13

What is perfect machine?Why is this machine not possible in the real life?​

Physics
1 answer:
andrezito [222]3 years ago
5 0

Explanation:

The machine whose efficiency is 100% is known as perfect machine .This machine is not possible in real life because every machine is affected by the overcoming friction due to which is efficiency become less than hundred percent .

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A swimming pool is 50 ft wide and 100 ft long and its bottom is an inclined plane, the shallow end having a depth of 4 ft and th
Nina [5.8K]

Explanation:

We define force as the product of mass and acceleration.

F = ma

It means that the object has zero net force when it is in rest state or it when it has no acceleration. However in the case of liquids. just like the above mentioned case, the water is at rest but it is still exerting a pressure on the walls of the swimming pool. That pressure exerted by the liquids in their rest state is known as hydro static force.

Given Data:

Width of the pool = w = 50 ft

length of the pool = l= 100 ft

Depth of the shallow end = h(s) = 4 ft

Depth of the deep end = h(d) = 10 ft.

weight density = ρg = 62.5 lb/ft

Solution:

a) Force on a shallow end:

F = \frac{pgwh}{2} (2x_{1}+h)

F = \frac{(62.5)(50)(4)}{2}(2(0)+4)

F = 25000 lb

b) Force on deep end:

F = \frac{pgwh}{2} (2x_{1}+h)

F = \frac{(62.5)(50)(10)}{2} (2(0)+10)

F = 187500 lb

c) Force on one of the sides:

As it is mentioned in the question that the bottom of the swimming pool is an inclined plane so sum of the forces on the rectangular part and triangular part will give us the force on one of the sides of the pool.

1) Force on the Rectangular part:

F = \frac{pg(l.h)}{2}(2(x_{1} )+ h)

x_{1} = 0\\h_{s} = 4ft

F = \frac{(62.5)(100)(2)}{2}(2(0)+4)

F =25000lb

2) Force on the triangular part:

F = \frac{pg(l.h)}{6} (3x_{1} +2h)

here

h = h(d) - h(s)

h = 10-4

h = 6ft

x_{1} = 4ft\\

F = \frac{62.5 (100)(6)}{6} (3(4)+2(6))

F = 150000 lb

now add both of these forces,

F = 25000lb + 150000lb

F = 175000lb

d) Force on the bottom:

F = \frac{pgw\sqrt{l^{2} + ((h_{d}) - h(s)) } (h_{d}+h_{s})   }{2}

F = \frac{62.5(50)\sqrt{100^{2}(10-4) } (10+4) }{2}

F = 2187937.5 lb

7 0
3 years ago
How many neutrons does C-13 have?<br> A. 6<br> B. 7<br> C. 13<br> D. 19
Mrac [35]
The answer is B. 7.
6 0
3 years ago
Next
natta225 [31]

Answer:

maybe it is the first one

7 0
3 years ago
You perform nine (identical) measurements of the acceleration of gravity (units of m/s2): 10.1, 9.87, 9.76, 9.91, 9.75, 9.88, 9.
san4es73 [151]

Answer: The mean value <u>= 9.85m/s².</u>

Explanation:

Mean = \dfrac{\text{Sum of n observations}}{n}

The given measurements the acceleration of gravity (units of m/s²): 10.1, 9.87, 9.76, 9.91, 9.75, 9.88, 9.69, 9.83, and 9.90.

Number of measurements =9

Sum of measurements =  88.69

Mean = \dfrac{88.69}{9}=9.85444444\approx9.85

Hence, the mean value<u> = 9.85m/s².</u>

6 0
3 years ago
From t=0 onwards what happens to the voltage across the inductor annd the curreent through the inductor relative to their values
gregori [183]

From t=0 onwards I changes slowly and V changes abruptly across the inductor.

At time t=0, the voltage across the inductor equalises the battery voltage; nevertheless, Lenz's Law states that this induced EMF will always be opposed to the polarity of the battery. The voltage across the inductor is equivalent to the voltage of a battery because the inductor at time zero behaves like a second battery of the same voltage linked in reverse.

Because current can never be zero, voltage across the inductor decreases with time. If it did, there would be no back EMF to stop the current from flowing through the inductor because the magnetic field would not be changing. As a result, the inductor will become less of an open circuit as the current increases over time. The inductor will essentially behave like a resistor.

Learn more about inductor here:

brainly.com/question/15893850

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
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