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ss7ja [257]
3 years ago
8

Nanotechnology is technology that is about 1 nm to ______ nm in size.

Physics
2 answers:
hammer [34]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

100

Explanation:

AnnyKZ [126]3 years ago
6 0

Explanation:

Nanotechnology is science, engineering, and technology conducted at the nanoscale, which is about 1 to 100 nanometers.

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A thermometer is placed in water in order to measure the water’s temperature. What would cause the liquid in the thermometer to
sineoko [7]
The temperature of the water getting colder would cause the liquid in the thermometer to drop due to less heat being transferred from the water to the liquid, so the liquid molecules are closer than when they have high energy.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The lower the angle of the slope, ________ the acceleration along the ramp, therefore, the speed at the bottom of a slope will b
pogonyaev

Answer:

Lower

Lower

gsintheta (gsinθ)

Explanation:

The sum of forces resolved parallel to the inclined plane is given by;

F - mgsinθ = 0

ma - mgsinθ = 0

ma = mgsinθ

a = gsinθ

Acceleration is proportional to angle of inclination, thus the lower the angle of the slope, lower the acceleration along the ramp.

therefore, the speed at the bottom of a slope will be lower, (velocity is directly proportional to acceleration) and, consequently, the control will be better.

The acceleration along the ramp, is gsintheta (gsinθ)

3 0
3 years ago
Which actions are examples of conserving resources? Check all that apply.
uysha [10]

Answer:

1st, 2nd, and 4th

Explanation:

1st conserves gasoline/petroleum

2nd conserves electricity

4th conserves paper

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
My Notes Ask Your Teacher 6. Six blocks with different masses, m, each start from rest at the top of smooth, frictionless inclin
Tresset [83]

Answer:

Kf > Ka = Kb > Kc > Kd > Ke

Explanation:

We can apply

E₀ = E₁

where

E₀: Mechanical energy at the beginning of the motion (top of the incline)

E₁: Mechanical energy at the end (bottom of the incline)

then

K₀ + U₀ = K₁ + U₁

If v₀ = 0  ⇒  K₀

and  h₁ = 0   ⇒    U₁ = 0

we get

U₀ = K₁    

U₀ = m*g*h₀ = K₁

we apply the same equation in each case

a) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 70 Kg*9.81 m/s²*8m = 5493.60 J

b) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 70 Kg*9.81 m/s²*8m = 5493.60 J

c) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 35 Kg*9.81 m/s²*4m = 1373.40 J

d) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 7 Kg*9.81 m/s²*16m = 1098.72 J

e) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 7 Kg*9.81 m/s²*4m = 274.68 J

f) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 105 Kg*9.81 m/s²*6m = 6180.30 J

finally, we can say that

Kf > Ka = Kb > Kc > Kd > Ke

8 0
3 years ago
Two students are watching a person riding a skateboard up and down a ramp. Each student shares what they think about the energy
avanturin [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

We know that , If the frictional force on a system is zero , then the total energy of a system will be conserved.

By using energy conservation

KE₁ +  U₁ = KE₂ + U₂

KE₁=Kinetic energy at location 1

U₁ =Potential energy at location 1

KE₂=Kinetic energy at location 2

U₂=Potential energy at location 2

Therefore, Raymond is thinking in a right way.

7 0
3 years ago
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