1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
kolezko [41]
3 years ago
10

Consider the wave function y(x)-Find the probability of fi in the range -a

Physics
1 answer:
Lera25 [3.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:(y(x))^{2}

Explanation:

The probability of fi in a range is given by the integral, whose limits are the range limits, of the square of the wave function y(x).

Example:

let's say range [a,b] with wave function y(x), then

Prob(a\leq x\leq  b)=\int\limits^b_a {y(x)^{2} } \, dx

You might be interested in
Due to the wave nature of light, light shined on a single slit will produce a diffraction pattern? Green light (520 nm) is shine
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

Yes, it will produce a diffraction pattern.

a. 3.9 mm b. 1.95 mm

Explanation:

The light shined from a single slit will produce a diffraction pattern because,  the wavefront act as wavelets which generates its own wave according to Huygens principle. This therefore causes the diffraction pattern.

Given

wavelength of green light, λ = 520 nm = 520 × 10⁻⁹ m = 5.20 × 10⁻⁷ m

width of slit, d = 0.440 mm = 0.44 × 10⁻³ m = 4.4 × 10⁻⁴ m

Distance of slit from central maximum , D = 1.65 m

Distance of first minimum from central maximum, y = ?

a. The relationship between the slit width and wavelength is given by [tex} dsinθ = mλ [/tex]where d = slit width, θ = angular distance from central maximum, λ = wavelength of light and m = ±1, ±2, ±3...

The relationship between y and D is given by tanθ = y/D

Since θ is small, sinθ ≈ θ ≈ tanθ

so, dθ = mλ ⇒ θ = mλ/d = y/D

Therefore, y = mλD/d

Now, for the first minimum above the slit, m = +1 and for the first minimum below the slit, m = -1. So, y₁ =  λD/d and y₋₁ =  -λD/d. So, the width of the central maximum Δy is the difference between the first minima below and above the central maximum. So, Δy = y₁ - y₋₁ = λD/d -(-λD/d) = 2λD/d

Substituting the values from above, Δy= 2 × 5.20 × 10⁻⁷ × 1.65/4.4 × 10⁻⁴ =  3900 × 10⁻⁶ m = 3.9 × 10⁻³ m = 3.9 mm

b. The first order fringe is the fringe located between the first minimum and the second minimum. From dsinθ = mλ and tanθ = y/D when θ is small, sinθ ≈ θ ≈ tanθ. So, y = mλD/d. Let m= 1 and m=2 be the first and second minima respectively. So,y₁ =  λD/d and y₂ =  2λD/d. The difference Δy₁ = y₂ - y₁ is the width of the first order fringe. Therefore, Δy₁ = 2λD/d - λD/d= λD/d. Substituting the values from above, we have

λD/d= 5.20 × 10⁻⁷ × 1.65/4.4 × 10⁻⁴= 1.95 × 10⁻³ m = 1.95 mm

7 0
4 years ago
A book is sliding along a desk top. Because the book is in motion ,you know that the forces acting on the book are A. Balanced B
Virty [35]
Just because the book is moving doesn't tell you anything about the forces on it, or even whether there ARE any.

Just look at Newton's first law of motion, and this time, let's try and THINK about it too. It says something to the effect that any object continues in constant, uniform MOTION ..... UNLESS acted on by an external force.
4 0
4 years ago
What is the acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of itsthree engines can provide 100,000 n of force?
sergey [27]

The acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of its three engines can provide 100,000N of force is 0.167m/s².

<h3>How to calculate acceleration?</h3>

The acceleration of a freight train can be calculated using the following formula:

Force = mass × acceleration

According to this question, a 600,000kg freight train can produce 100,000N of force. The acceleration is as follows:

100,000 = 600,000 × a

100,000 = 600,000a

a = 0.167m/s²

Therefore, the acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of its three engines can provide 100,000N of force is 0.167m/s².

Learn more about acceleration at: brainly.com/question/12550364

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
1 point
Yuliya22 [10]
PE= 3kg x 10N/kg x 10m
= 300J
8 0
3 years ago
A cheetah runs 5 miles in 60 seconds. How fast did the cheetah run in MILES per HOUR? Convert seconds into hours first, then sol
Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

300 miles per hour

Explanation:

Speed is distance per unit time, expressed as s=d/t where t is the time taken, d is distance covered and s is the speed.

Convering s to hrs

To convert seconds to hours, we knkw that 1 hour has 60 minutes and each minute has 60 seconds. Therefore, 1 hour has 60*60=3600 seconds

If 3600s=1 h

60 s=?

By cross multiplication 60s*1 h/3600s=1/60 hours

Given distance as 5 miles and time as 1/60 hours then the speed will be 5 divided by 1/60 hrs which is equivalent to 5*60=300 miles per hour

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Why is it important to keep the muzzle of a firearm pointed in a safe direction, even though the firearm's safety is engaged?
    8·1 answer
  • My Notes The linear density rho in a rod 5 m long is 11/ x + 4 kg/m, where x is measured in meters from one end of the rod. Find
    11·2 answers
  • Which excited electron has the lowest energy?
    5·2 answers
  • What part of the gun position equipment supports all of the elevating parts of the gun?
    12·1 answer
  • Water is boiled at 300 kPa pressure in a pressure cooker. The cooker initially contains 3 kg of water. Once boiling started, it
    10·1 answer
  • If you weighted 130 lbs on Earth how much would you weigh on the moon?
    12·1 answer
  • There is one foot in 12 inches.
    15·1 answer
  • What is (9.8) / (6.75x10-6)
    15·1 answer
  • A 10kg box accelerates forward at a rate of 12 m/s^2. What is the force acting on the box?
    11·1 answer
  • What are the forces that act on the ball pushed on the floor​?<br><br>Plss answer
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!