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Vlada [557]
2 years ago
10

Can sound travel through space? Why or why not?

Physics
1 answer:
DiKsa [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

I think sound does not travel at all in space. The vacuum of outer space has essentially zero air. Because sound is just vibrating air, space has no air to vibrate and therefore no sound. If you are sitting in a space ship and another space ship explodes, you would hear nothing.

Explanation:

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Which of the following properties of water help to explain why icebergs float in the ocean?
crimeas [40]
The reason why icebergs float in the ocean has to do with temperature. Icebergs are colder than the ocean water and therefore the cold water is less dense than the warm water and this causes the Iceberg to float.
7 0
3 years ago
Example 3 :
kherson [118]

The friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 × 10^8 respectively. Also, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 × 10^8 respectively.

<h3>How to determine the friction factor</h3>

Using the formula

μ = viscosity = 0. 06 Pas

d =  diameter = 120mm = 0. 12m

V =  velocity = 1m/s and 3m/s

ρ = density = 0.9

a. Velocity = 1m/s

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12* 1* 0. 9}

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 108}

friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 55

friction factor = 0. 289

b. When V = 3mls

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12 * 3* 0. 9}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 324}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 185

Friction factor = 0.096

Loss When V = 1m/s

Head loss/ length = friction factor × 1/ 2g × velocity^2/ diameter

Head loss = 0. 289 × \frac{1}{2*6. 6743 * 10^-11} × \frac{1^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss =  1. 80 × 10^8

Head loss When V = 3m/s

Head loss = 0. 096 × \frac{1}{1. 334 *10^-10} × \frac{3^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss = 5. 3× 10^8

Thus, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 ×10^8 respectively also, the friction factor and head loss  when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 ×10^8 respectively.

Learn more about friction here:

brainly.com/question/24338873

#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
1. How do you determine which between the two object has a greater amount of potential energy?
jeka94

Answer:

All of these answers are dependent upon the specific scenario, but here are some general answers.

1. An object with a greater height will have more potential energy.

2. Potential energy can be changed into kinetic energy as an object falls. It loses height (potential energy) and gains speed (kinetic energy).

3. Depends on what scenario your class had.

5 0
2 years ago
A gardener pushes a wheelbarrow around the edges of a lawn. When she has finished, she is 5 m from her starting point. She has t
zvonat [6]

Answer:

Work done by the gardner is 500 J

Explanation:

As we know that the gardner apply force perpendicular upward by magnitude 300 N and along the floor horizontal force is 100 N

so we have

F = 100 \hat i + 300 \hat j

now the displacement of the gardner along the floor is

d = 5\hat i

now work done is given as

W = F. d

so we have

W = (100 \hat i + 300 \hat j). (5\hat i)

W = 500 J

3 0
3 years ago
According to the momentum principle, the change in momentum of an object equals the impulse, which depends on______
3241004551 [841]

Answer: The momentum principle depends on MASS and VELOCITY.

Explanation:

The momentum principle states that net force changes the the momentum of an object where momentum is the product of the MASS of the body and it's VELOCITY.

Thus, momentum = mass(kg) ×velocity( m/s)= kgm/s ( derived unit)

Also to determine the rate of change of momentum;

Mass=m, initial velocity =u, final velocity = V and time =t

Initial momentum = mu

Final momentum = mv

Change in momentum = mv - mu

= m( v- u)

Rate of change of momentum=

m( v -u)/t --> equation 1

But V = u + at

Hence, a = v -u/t

Substitute for v -u/ t in equation 1

F = Kma, where k is constant and has the value of 1.

Therefore F = ma

Newton is the SI unit if force. It is defined as the force which gives a mass of 1kg an acceleration of 1 m/s².

IMPULSE is defined as the change of momentum of a body (mv-mu) or the product of force and time.

Thus impulse = force × time = m (v-u)

The unit is Ns ( Newton seconds) which is the same as change in momentum.

3 0
2 years ago
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