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3 years ago

A rope horizontally pulls a massive object lying on a surface with friction with a constant

Physics

1 answer:

SVEN [57.7K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Equal to the frictional force

Explanation:

<u>Question</u>; The options given with regards to a similar question posted online are;

A. Equal (equivalent) to the frictional force

B. Larger than the frictional force

C. Equal to the object's weight

D. More than the object's weight

Explanation

According to Newton's first law of motion, every object shall remain at rest or continue moving with uniform (constant speed) motion unless there is a net force acting on the object

Given that the velocity of the massive block, lying on the surface that has friction, being pulled by the rope = Constant

Therefore;

The net force acting on the moving block while being pulled by the rope = 0

From which we have;

The pulling force = The resistive force

Where;

The pulling force = The (pulling) force (applied) on the rope

The resistive force = The frictional force of the surface which tends to prevent the motion of the block

Therefore, given that the net force acting on the block = 0

The force on the rope = The frictional force (of the surface)

The correct option is option A. Equal to the frictional force.

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47. the beam is supported by two rods ab and cd that have cross-sectional areas of 12mm^2 and 8mm^2, respectively. determine the

Ugo [173]

Let the beam is of length L

Now the stress on both the end is same

now we can say that torque on the beam due to two forces must be zero

$N_1* x = N_2* (L - x)$

also we know that stress at both ends are same

$\frac{N_1}{12} = \frac{N_2}{8}$

$2*N_1 = 3*N_2$

Now from two equations we have

$\frac{3}{2}N_2*x = N_2* (L - x)$

solving above equation we have

$x = \frac{2}{5}L$

<em>so the load is placed at distance 0.4L from the end of 12 mm^2 area</em>

8 0

3 years ago

Anakin Skywalker's pod racer has a mass of 450 kg. If the top speed of this racer is 947

andriy [413]

Answer:

15,569,653.3 Joules(J)

Explanation:

The equation used to find Kinetic Energy (KE) is

KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ m $v^{2}$

You have been given

m = 450kg

v = 947km/h

KE = ???

Firstly, we need to convert the km/h into m/s as this is the unit used in the KE equation

This can be done by dividing by 3.6

947km/h = 263.056m/s

Substitute you values into the equation

KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ m $v^{2}$

KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ * 450 * $263.056^{2}$

KE = 15,569,653.3 Joules(J)

Round your answer as appropriate

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3 years ago

If a magnet can cut into a small piece , each piece will remain a magnet ? Explain this phenomenon

Hitman42 [59]

yes ,each piece will remain a magnet because the small pieces will cut into north and south

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3 years ago

According to the myth, why did Pandora open the box that the gods told her never to open?

svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

B. Her curiosity got the best of her

Explanation:

Pandora gave in to her curiosity .

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An iron bal of mass 20kg is rolling on a flat surface. On applying force, the velocity change from 17ms to 27m/s in 5s. Calculat

pentagon [3]

Answer:

40 N

Explanation:

We first need to calculate the acceleration of the tron ball.

Since acceleration, a = (v - u)/t where u = initial velocity of iron ball = 17m/s, v = final velocity of iron ball = 27m/s and t = time taken for the change in velocity = 5 s.

So, a = (v - u)/t

= (27 m/s - 17 m/s)/5 s

= 10 m/s ÷ 5 s

= 2 m/s²

We know force on iron ball, F = ma where m = mass of iron ball = 20 kg and a = acceleration = 2 m/s²

So, F = ma

= 20 kg × 2 m/s²

= 40 kgm/s²

= 40 N

So, the magnitude of the force on the iron ball is 40 N.

4 0

3 years ago