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Komok [63]
3 years ago
8

Do two magnets create magnetic force fields that allow them to interact without touching?

Physics
1 answer:
ser-zykov [4K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yeup

Explanation:

if you flip two magnets around so that they're both negative or both positive they have a strong magnetic force that pushes them away from each other without even having to touch

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Fossils are dated using radioactive...<br><br> a. hydrogen <br> b. helium<br> c. carbon
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

carbon

Explanation:

7 0
4 years ago
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Constant speed is the same thing as average speed
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No, they have different definitions
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Ions are atoms of the same element that have a different number of _____________.
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C, electrons. Ion<span> of an </span>element has<span> the </span>same<span> nucleus, the </span>same number<span> of protons and neutrons, with a </span>different number<span> of electrons.</span>
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3 years ago
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If the phase angle for a block–spring system in SHM is ϕ and the block's position is given by x = xm cos(ωt + ϕ), what is the ra
matrenka [14]

<h2>K.E/P.E = m/k  tan²φ x ω²</h2>

Explanation:

The given position of block x = x₀ cos(ωt + φ)

The velocity of block  v = dx/dt = - x₀ sin(ωt + φ) x ω

The kinetic energy = 1/2 mv² = 1/2 m x₀² sin²(ωt + φ) x ω²

The potential energy of spring = 1/2 k x² , where k is the spring constant

Thus P.E = 1/2 x k x x₀² cos²(ωt + φ)

When t = 0

K.E = 1/2 m x₀²sin²φ x ω²

P.E = 1/2 k x₀² cos²φ

Dividing these , we have

K.E/P.E = m/k  tan²φ x ω²

7 0
3 years ago
A horizontal spring is attached to a wall at one end and a mass at the other. The mass rests on a frictionless surface. You pull
LenKa [72]

Answer:

54%

Explanation:

So, we have that the "magnitude of its displacement from equilibrium is greater than (0.66)A—''. Thus, the first step to take in answering this question is to write out the equation showing the displacement in simple harmonic motion which is = A cos w×t.

Therefore, we will have two instances t the displacement that is to say at a point 2π/w - a2 and the second point at a = a2.

Let us say that 2π/w = A, then, we have that a = A cos ^-1 (0.66)/2π. Also, we have that a2 = A/2 - A cos^- (0.66) / 2π.

The next thing to do is to calculate or determine the total length of of the required time. Thus, the total length is given as:

2a1 + ( A - 2a2) = 2A{ cos^-1 (0.66)}/ π.

Therefore, the total percentage of the period does the mass lie in these regions = 100 × {2a1 + ( A - 2a2) }/A = 2 { cos^-1 (0.66)}/ π × 100 = 54%.

Thus, the total percentage of the period does the mass lie in these regions = 54%.

6 0
3 years ago
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