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Komok [63]
3 years ago
8

Do two magnets create magnetic force fields that allow them to interact without touching?

Physics
1 answer:
ser-zykov [4K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yeup

Explanation:

if you flip two magnets around so that they're both negative or both positive they have a strong magnetic force that pushes them away from each other without even having to touch

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Which best describes the energy of a sound wave as it travels through a medium?
qaws [65]

Answer:

it increases

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
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Starting at t = 0 s , a horizontal net force F⃗ =( 0.285 N/s )ti^+(-0.460 N/s2 )t2j^ is applied to a box that has an initial mom
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

Explanation:

We know that Impulse = force x time

impulse = change in momentum

change in momentum = force x time

Force F = .285 t -.46t²

Since force is variable

change in momentum = ∫ F dt  where F is force

= ∫ .285ti - .46t²j dt

= .285 t² / 2i - .46 t³ / 3 j

When t = 1.9

change in momentum = .285 x 1.9² /2 i  -  .46 x 1.9³ / 3 j

= .514i - 1.05 j

final momentum

= - 3.1 i + 3.9j +.514i - 1.05j

= - 2.586 i + 2.85j

x component = - 2.586

y component = 2.85

7 0
3 years ago
The spring of a spring gun has force constant k = 400 N/m and negligible mass. The spring is compressed 6.00 cm and a ball with
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

A) v = 6.93 m/s

B) v = 4.9 m/s

C) x_m = 0.015m

D) v_max = 5.2 m/s

Explanation:

We are given;

x = 6 cm = 0.06 m

k = 400 N

m = 0.03 kg

F = 6N

A) from work energy law, work dome by the spring on ball which now became a kinetic energy is;

Ws = K.E = ½kx²

Similarly, kinetic energy of ball is;

K.E = ½mv²

So, equating both equations, we have;

½kx² = ½mv²

Making v the subject gives;

v = √(kx²/m)

Plugging in the relevant values to give;

v = √((400 × 0.06²)/0.03)

v = √48

v = 6.93 m/s

B) If there is friction, the total work is;

Ws = ½kx² - - - (1)

Work of the ball is;

Wb = KE + Wf

So, Wb = ½mv² + fx - - - (2)

Combining both equations, we have;

½mv² + fx = ½kx²

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

(½ × 0.03 × v²) + (6 × 0.06) = ½ × 400 × 0.06²

0.015v² + 0.36 = 0.72

0.015v² = 0.72 - 0.36

v² = 0.36/0.015

v = √24

v = 4.9 m/s

C) The speed is greatest where the acceleration stops i.e. where the net force on the ball is zero. (ie spring force matches 6.0N friction)

So, from F = Kx;

(x is measured into barrel from end where F = 0)

Thus; 6.0 = 400x

x_m = 6/400

x_m = 0.015m from the end after traveling 0.045m

D) Initial force on ball = (Kx - F) =

[(400 x 0.06) - 6.0] = 18N

Final force on ball = 0N

Mean Net force on ball = ½(18 + 0)

Mean met force, F_m = 9N

Net Work Done on ball = KE = 9N x 0.045m = 0.405 J

Thus;

½m(v_max)² = 0.405J

(v_max)² = 2 x 0.405/0.03

(v_max)² = 27

v(max) = √27

v_max = 5.2 m/s

6 0
2 years ago
Type the correct answer in the box. What is the resistance of a circuit with a voltage of 10 volts (V) and a current of 5 amps (
harkovskaia [24]

Resistance = Voltage/Current

                   = 10/5

Resistance = 2 ohms

4 0
2 years ago
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Who’s going faster in the attached image?
ioda

Answer:

Art

Explanation:

Polly's line is linear, while arts line is going up with constant velocity. There for art is going faster.

8 0
2 years ago
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