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Komok [63]
3 years ago
8

Do two magnets create magnetic force fields that allow them to interact without touching?

Physics
1 answer:
ser-zykov [4K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yeup

Explanation:

if you flip two magnets around so that they're both negative or both positive they have a strong magnetic force that pushes them away from each other without even having to touch

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What two measurements are needed to determine density?
g100num [7]
Density is defined as (mass) per unit (volume).  So in order to calculate
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in a lever, a load of 600N is lifted by using 400 effort. If the load is at the distance of 20cm and the effort at the distance
koban [17]

Explanation:

Load (l) = 680N

Effort (E) = 500N

Length slope (l) = 12m

Height slope (h) = 8 m

Output = load * height

680 *8 = 5.44 *103 J

The Input = effort * length = 500 *12 = 6000J

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2 years ago
A mass is oscillating with amplitude A at the end of a spring.
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

A) x=\pm \frac{A}{2\sqrt{2}}

The total energy of the system is equal to the maximum elastic potential energy, that is achieved when the displacement is equal to the amplitude (x=A):

E=\frac{1}{2}kA^2 (1)

where k is the spring constant.

The total energy, which is conserved, at any other point of the motion is the sum of elastic potential energy and kinetic energy:

E=U+K=\frac{1}{2}kx^2+\frac{1}{2}mv^2 (2)

where x is the displacement, m the mass, and v the speed.

We want to know the displacement x at which the elastic potential energy is 1/3 of the kinetic energy:

U=\frac{1}{3}K

Using (2) we can rewrite this as

U=\frac{1}{3}(E-U)=\frac{1}{3}E-\frac{1}{3}U\\U=\frac{E}{4}

And using (1), we find

U=\frac{E}{4}=\frac{\frac{1}{2}kA^2}{4}=\frac{1}{8}kA^2

Substituting U=\frac{1}{2}kx^2 into the last equation, we find the value of x:

\frac{1}{2}kx^2=\frac{1}{8}kA^2\\x=\pm \frac{A}{2\sqrt{2}}

B) x=\pm \frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}A

In this case, the kinetic energy is 1/10 of the total energy:

K=\frac{1}{10}E

Since we have

K=E-U

we can write

E-U=\frac{1}{10}E\\U=\frac{9}{10}E

And so we find:

\frac{1}{2}kx^2 = \frac{9}{10}(\frac{1}{2}kA^2)=\frac{9}{20}kA^2\\x^2 = \frac{9}{10}A^2\\x=\pm \frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}A

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Answer:

Wave model

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