Has a man he has married many women but has never been married before who is he

Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by

Ulleksa [173]

A) $v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}$

B) $r=\frac{mv}{qB}$

C) $T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

D) $\omega=\frac{qB}{m}$

E) $r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}$

Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

$\Delta U = qV$

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

$\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

$qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

$v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}$

B)

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

$F=qvB$

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

$F=m\frac{v^2}{r}$

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

$qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}$

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

$r=\frac{mv}{qB}$ (1)

C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference ( $2\pi r$ ) and the velocity of the particle (v):

$T=\frac{2\pi r}{v}$ (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

$v=\frac{qBr}{m}$

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

$T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

$\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}$ (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

$T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}$

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

$\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}$

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

$v=\frac{qBr}{m}$

which can be rewritten as

$r=\frac{mv}{qB}$ (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

$K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

$v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}$

And substitutin into (4), we find:

$r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}$

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

6 0

3 years ago

A scientist is studying a shock wave from an earthquake. What kind of wave is being studying?

Pavel [41]

Answer:

Longitudinal Mechanical Wave

Explanation:

Mechanical waves are the waves that require medium to propagate. And a longitudinal wave is a wave in which the vibration of the energy(here: mass specifically) is in the direction of propagation of wave.

Shock wave, strong pressure wave in any elastic medium such as air, water, or a solid substance, produced by supersonic aircraft, explosions, lightning, or other phenomena that create violent changes in pressure.

Shock waves travel faster than sound and their speed increases as the amplitude of the wave is increased but their intensity fades faster due to the fact that some of its energy gets expended in the form of heat due to the resistance of the medium.

3 0

3 years ago

Use the equation for magnetic force on a moving charge to derive the equation for magnetic force on a current carrying wire. Sho

max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

The formula comes from Lorentz force law which includes both the electric and magnetic field. If the electric field is zero, the force law for just the magnetic field is <u>F=q(ν×B</u>) . Here, F is force and is a vector because the force acts in a direction. q is the charge of the particle. v is velocity and is a vector because the particle is moving in some direction. B is the magnetic flux density.

We can derive an expression for the magnetic force on a current by taking a sum of the magnetic forces on individual charges. (The forces add because they are in the same direction.) The force on an individual charge moving at the drift velocity vd. Since the magnitude of B is constant at every line element of the loop (circle) and it dot product with the line element is B dl everywhere, therefore

∮B dl=μ0 I

B ∮dl=μ0 I

B 2πr=μ0 I

B=μ02πr Id=μ0/4π I dl×rr3

Since, r can be written as r=(rcosθ,rsinθ,z) and dl as dl=(dl,0,0) And now, if we take the cross product we would get

dl×r=−z dlj^+rsinθk^

and therefore the magnitude of dB is equal to

dB=μ0/4π I |dl×r|/r3=μ0/4π I z2+r2sin2θ−−−−−−−−−−√dl/r3

Thus, magnetic field is depending on r,θ,z.

Learn more about Force here-

brainly.com/question/2855467

#SPJ4

7 0

2 years ago

How expensive is genetic counseling and reproductive technology?

ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

Genetic counseling without testing cost on average $213, whereas counseling, testing, and disclosure of results totaled $2057. A brief physician-based counseling instead of genetic counselor-based counseling would produce only small reductions in total costs.

hope it helps, please give me brainliest.

8 0

3 years ago

Two waves meet and overlap. The first wave has an amplitude of 4.6 centimeters and the second wave has an amplitude of 2 centime

vodka [1.7K]

Answer:

Explanation:

The amplitude of resultant wave as the result of overlap of two waves depends upon the phase difference between the two. If the waves meet crest to trough , the phase difference is 180 degree or they are in opposite phase . Hence they will destroy each other . The amplitude of resultant wave can be obtained by subtracting the amplitudes of two waves. They will interfere destructively.

Amplitude of resultant gives waves = 4.6 - 2 = 2.6 cm.

3 0

3 years ago

Has a man he has married many women but has never been married before who is he​

Has a man he has married many women but has never been married before who is he