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bonufazy [111]
3 years ago
5

A 2 kg marble moving at 4 mi./s collides into a 1 kg marble at rest. After collision, the 2 kg marble speed decreased to 2 mi./s

. Calculate the velocity and speed of the 1 kg marble immediately after colliding.
Please show work and please help me as fast as possible because this is time

Please help as soon as possible please

Please I’m begging
Physics
1 answer:
Klio2033 [76]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2\sqrt{6}  \frac{mi}{s}

Explanation:

Assuming there is no waste of energy:

K_{1} = K_{2}\\\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1_{1}}^{2} + \frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2_{1}}^2 = \frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1_{2}}^{2} + \frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2_{2}}^2\\\\=> m_{1}v_{1_{1}}^{2} + m_{2}v_{2_{1}}^2 = m_{1}v_{1_{2}}^{2} + m_{2}v_{2_{2}}^2\\\\m_{1} = 2 kg, m_{2} = 1 kg, v_{1_{1}} = 4 \frac{mi}{s} , v_{2_{1}} = 0\\=> 32 = 8 + v_{2_{2}}^{2} => v_{2_{2}} = 2\sqrt{6} \frac{mi}{s}

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Your roommate leaves a 120W fan running in your apartment.Over the course of an hour,how much thermal energy does the fan add to
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

4.32\cdot 10^5 J

Explanation:

Power is related to energy by the following relationship:

P=\frac{E}{t}

where

P is the power used

E is the energy used

t is the time elapsed

In this problem, we know that

- the power of the fan is P = 120 W

- the fan has been running for one hour, which corresponds to a time of

t = 1 h \cdot (60 min/h)(60 s/min)=3600 s

So we can re-arrange the previous equation to find E, the energy (in the form of thermal energy) released by the fan:

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3 years ago
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The spring of a spring gun has force constant k = 400 N/m and negligible mass. The spring is compressed 6.00 cm and a ball with
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

A) v = 6.93 m/s

B) v = 4.9 m/s

C) x_m = 0.015m

D) v_max = 5.2 m/s

Explanation:

We are given;

x = 6 cm = 0.06 m

k = 400 N

m = 0.03 kg

F = 6N

A) from work energy law, work dome by the spring on ball which now became a kinetic energy is;

Ws = K.E = ½kx²

Similarly, kinetic energy of ball is;

K.E = ½mv²

So, equating both equations, we have;

½kx² = ½mv²

Making v the subject gives;

v = √(kx²/m)

Plugging in the relevant values to give;

v = √((400 × 0.06²)/0.03)

v = √48

v = 6.93 m/s

B) If there is friction, the total work is;

Ws = ½kx² - - - (1)

Work of the ball is;

Wb = KE + Wf

So, Wb = ½mv² + fx - - - (2)

Combining both equations, we have;

½mv² + fx = ½kx²

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

(½ × 0.03 × v²) + (6 × 0.06) = ½ × 400 × 0.06²

0.015v² + 0.36 = 0.72

0.015v² = 0.72 - 0.36

v² = 0.36/0.015

v = √24

v = 4.9 m/s

C) The speed is greatest where the acceleration stops i.e. where the net force on the ball is zero. (ie spring force matches 6.0N friction)

So, from F = Kx;

(x is measured into barrel from end where F = 0)

Thus; 6.0 = 400x

x_m = 6/400

x_m = 0.015m from the end after traveling 0.045m

D) Initial force on ball = (Kx - F) =

[(400 x 0.06) - 6.0] = 18N

Final force on ball = 0N

Mean Net force on ball = ½(18 + 0)

Mean met force, F_m = 9N

Net Work Done on ball = KE = 9N x 0.045m = 0.405 J

Thus;

½m(v_max)² = 0.405J

(v_max)² = 2 x 0.405/0.03

(v_max)² = 27

v(max) = √27

v_max = 5.2 m/s

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