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Snowcat [4.5K]
3 years ago
7

Describe in your own words the three strengthening mechanisms

Engineering
1 answer:
TEA [102]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a) Decreasing grain size decreases the amount of possible pile up at the boundary, increasing the amount of applied stress necessary to move a dislocation across a grain boundary. ... Grain sizes can range from about 100 μm (0.0039 in) (large grains) to 1 μm (3.9×10−5 in) (small grains).

b) Solid solution strengthening is a type of alloying that can be used to improve the strength of a pure metal. The technique works by adding atoms of one element (the alloying element) to the crystalline lattice of another element (the base metal), forming a solid solution.

c) Work hardening, also known as strain hardening, is the strengthening of a metal or polymer by plastic deformation. ... This strengthening occurs because of dislocation movements and dislocation generation within the crystal structure of the material.

Explanation:

I hope this will help you bro/sis

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Wastewater flows into a _________ once it is released into a floor drain.
rodikova [14]

Answer:

A) Sump pit

Explanation:

A wastewater typically refers to a body of water that has contaminated through human use in homes, offices, schools, businesses etc. Wastewater are meant to be disposed in accordance with the local regulations and standards because they are unhygienic for human consumption or use.

Generally, many homes use a floor drain in their bathrooms and toilets to remove wastewater in order to mitigate stagnation and to improve hygiene. A floor drain can be defined as a material installed on floors for the continuous removal of any stagnant wastewater in buildings. Wastewater flows into a sump pit once it is released into a floor drain through the use of a pipe such as a polyvinyl chloride (PVC) pipe, which directly connects the floor drain to the sump pit. The wastewater can the be removed from the sump pit when it is filled up through the use of a pump.

6 0
3 years ago
4.2 A vapor compression refrigeration machine uses 30kW of electric power to produce 50 tons of cooling. What is
stellarik [79]

Answer:

5.833

Explanation:

Coefficient of Perfomance (COP) is the ratio of refrigeration effect to power input.

COP=\frac {RE}{P} where RE is refrigeration effect and P is power input

Here, the power input is given as 30 kW

We also know that 1 ton cooling is equivalent to 3.5 kW hence for 50 tons, RE=50*3.5=175 kW

Now the COP=\frac {175}{30}=5.833

6 0
3 years ago
A vacuum gage connected to a tank reads 30 kPa at a location where the barometric reading is 755 mmHg. Determine the absolute pr
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

Absolute pressure=70.72 KPa

Explanation:

Given that Vacuum gauge pressure= 30 KPa

Barometer reading =755 mm Hg

We know that barometer always reads atmospheric pressure at given situation.So  atmospheric pressure is equal to  755 mm Hg.

We know that P= ρ g h

Density of Hg=13600 \frac{kg}{m^3}

So P=13600 x 9.81 x 0.755

P=100.72 KPa

We know that

Absolute pressure=atmospheric pressure + gauge pressure

But here given that 30 KPa is a Vacuum pressure ,so we will take it as negative.

Absolute pressure=atmospheric pressure + gauge pressure

Absolute pressure=100.72 - 30   KPa

So

Absolute pressure=70.72 KPa

8 0
3 years ago
You are working as an electrical technician. One day, out in the field, you need an inductor but cannot find one. Looking in you
telo118 [61]

Answer:

a) the inductance of the coil is 6 mH

b) the emf generated in the coil is 18 mV  

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

N = 570 turns

diameter of tube d = 8.10 cm = 0.081 m

length of the wire-wrapped portion l =  35.0 cm = 0.35 m

a) the inductance of the coil (in mH)

inductance of solenoid

L = N²μA / l

A = πd²/4  

so

L = N²μ(πd²/4) / l

L = N²μ(πd²) / 4l

we know that μ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ TmA⁻¹

we substitute

L = [(570)² × 4π × 10⁻⁷× ( π × (0.081)² )] / 4(0.35)

L =  0.00841549 / 1.4

L = 6 × 10⁻³ H    

L = 6 × 10⁻³ × 1000 mH

L = 6 mH

Therefore, the inductance of the coil is 6 mH

b)

Emf ( ∈ ) = L di/dt

given that; di/dt = 3.00 A/sec

{∴ di = 3 - 0 = 3 and dt = 1 sec}

Emf ( ∈ ) = L di/dt

we substitute

⇒ 6 × 10⁻³ ( 3/1 )

= 18 × 10⁻³ V

= 18 × 10⁻³ × 1000

= 18 mV  

Therefore, the emf generated in the coil is 18 mV  

7 0
2 years ago
One of the disadvantages of the test of the hypothesis is that the final decision cannot be said to be completely correct eviden
vfiekz [6]

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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