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Tasya [4]
3 years ago
5

How long should the shafts remain in the furnace to achieve a desired centerline temperature of 800K? 2) Determine the temperatu

re gradient in the shaft at the outer surface of the shaft at the initial time when the steels enter the furnace? Note, the r coordinate extends along the direction from the center to outside.

Engineering
1 answer:
Phantasy [73]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Kindly check the attached image below to see the step by step explanation to the question above.

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A pitfall cited in Section 1.10 is expecting to improve the overall performance of a computer by improving only one aspect of th
Oxana [17]

Answer:

a) For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

b) For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

c) A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

Explanation:

From the info given we know that a computer running a program that requires 250 s, with 70 s spent executing FP instructions, 85 s executed L/S instructions and 40 s spent executing branch instructions.

Part 1

For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

Part 2

For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

And we can quantify the decrease using the relative change:

\% Change = \frac{5s}{55 s} *100 = 9.09\% of reduction

Part 3

A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

8 0
3 years ago
The wall of drying oven is constructed by sandwiching insulation material of thermal conductivity k = 0.05 W/m°K between thin me
masha68 [24]

Answer:

86 mm

Explanation:

From the attached thermal circuit diagram, equation for i-nodes will be

\frac {T_ \infty, i-T_{i}}{ R^{"}_{cv, i}} + \frac {T_{o}-T_{i}}{ R^{"}_{cd}} + q_{rad} = 0 Equation 1

Similarly, the equation for outer node “o” will be

\frac {T_{ i}-T_{o}}{ R^{"}_{cd}} + \frac {T_{\infty, o} -T_{o}}{ R^{"}_{cv, o}} = 0 Equation 2

The conventive thermal resistance in i-node will be

R^{"}_{cv, i}= \frac {1}{h_{i}}= \frac {1}{30}= 0.033 m^{2}K/w Equation 3

The conventive hermal resistance per unit area is

R^{"}_{cv, o}= \frac {1}{h_{o}}= \frac {1}{10}= 0.100 m^{2}K/w Equation 4

The conductive thermal resistance per unit area is

R^{"}_{cd}= \frac {L}{K}= \frac {L}{0.05} m^{2}K/w Equation 5

Since q_{rad}  is given as 100, T_{o}  is 40 T_ \infty  is 300 T_{\infty, o}  is 25  

Substituting the values in equations 3,4 and 5 into equations 1 and 2 we obtain

\frac {300-T_{i}}{0.033} +\frac {40-T_{i}}{L/0.05} +100=0  Equation 6

\frac {T_{ i}-40}{L/0.05}+ \frac {25-40}{0.100}=0

T_{i}-40= \frac {L}{0.05}*150

T_{i}-40=3000L

T_{i}=3000L+40 Equation 7

From equation 6 we can substitute wherever there’s T_{i} with 3000L+40 as seen in equation 7 hence we obtain

\frac {300- (3000L+40)}{0.033} + \frac {40- (3000L+40)}{L/0.05}+100=0

The above can be simplified to be

\frac {260-3000L}{0.033}+ \frac {(-3000L)}{L/0.05}+100=0

\frac {260-3000L}{0.033}=50

-3000L=1.665-260

L= \frac {-258.33}{-3000}=0.086*10^{-3}m= 86mm

Therefore, insulation thickness is 86mm

8 0
3 years ago
Question 1 A design team completes their high-fidelity prototype of a responsive website. Before they hand off designs to the en
MissTica

A question the design team should answer before handing off the designs is: are the designs a true representation of the intended end user experience?

<h3>What is a website?</h3>

A website can be defined as a collective name that is used to describe series of webpages that are interconnected or linked together with the same domain name.

In Computer technology, the main goal of a high-fidelity prototype is to understand how end users would interact with a website and areas to improve the design.

In conclusion, the design team should answer whether or not the designs are a true representation of the intended end user experience before handing off the designs.

Read more on website here: brainly.com/question/26324021

5 0
1 year ago
What is the mechanical advantage of a pulley with 3 support ropes?
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

The mechanical advantage is 3 to 1

Explanation:

A frictionless pulley with three support ropes carries equal tension on each of the ropes thus;

Tension in each pulley rope = T

Total tension in the 3 ropes = 3 × T = 3·T

Direction of the tension forces on each rope = Unidirectional

Total force provided by the 3 ropes = 3·T

Therefore, a force, T, applied at the end of the rope will result in a lifting force of 3·T

Hence, the mechanical advantage = 3·T to T which is presented as follows;

Mechanical \ advantage = \dfrac{3 \cdot T}{T}  = \dfrac{3}{1}

The mechanical advantage = 3 to 1.

5 0
3 years ago
state &amp; prove parallelogram law of vector addition &amp;Also determine magnitude &amp;direction of resultant vector.​
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

Parallelogram law of vector addition states that if two vectors are considered to be the adjacent sides of a parallelogram, then the resultant of the two vectors is given by the vector that is diagonal passing through the point of contact of two vectors.

8 0
3 years ago
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