Answer:
The equation used to calculate the work done is: work done = force × distance. W = F × d. This is when: work done (W) is measured in joules (J)
The correct answer of this question is : A) Change alternating current into direct current.
EXPLANATION :
As per the question, we are given vacuum tube. Vacuum tube can be of various types. Normally it contains two electrodes called cathode and anode which are enclosed in an evacuated glass chamber . There are also other types of vacuum tubes which contain extra electrodes like control grid .
The vacuum tube can be used as a rectifier. It means that it can be used as an electronic device which will convert alternating current into direct current. It may be a half wave rectifier or a full wave rectifier. Actually the direct current obtained during the rectification of alternating current is pulsating in nature.
Hence, the correct answer is that a vacuum tube can be used to change alternating current into direct current.
Answer:
0.5m
Explanation:
v=f×lamda
v is 300m/s, f is 600Hz, lamda is ?
lamda=v/f
lamda=300/600
lamda =3/6=1/2m
Answer:
a) see attached, a = g sin θ
b)
c) v = √(2gL (1-cos θ))
Explanation:
In the attached we can see the forces on the sphere, which are the attention of the bar that is perpendicular to the movement and the weight of the sphere that is vertical at all times. To solve this problem, a reference system is created with one axis parallel to the bar and the other perpendicular to the rod, the weight of decomposing in this reference system and the linear acceleration is given by
Wₓ = m a
W sin θ = m a
a = g sin θ
b) The diagram is the same, the only thing that changes is the angle that is less
θ' = 9/2 θ
c) At this point the weight and the force of the bar are in the same line of action, so that at linear acceleration it is zero, even when the pendulum has velocity v, so it follows its path.
The easiest way to find linear speed is to use conservation of energy
Highest point
Em₀ = mg h = mg L (1-cos tea)
Lowest point
Emf = K = ½ m v²
Em₀ = Emf
g L (1-cos θ) = v² / 2
v = √(2gL (1-cos θ))
Answer:à
Explanation:waves carry energy in the direction in which they move