Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
the slope of A is 1/2 which is greater than that of B
= 2a - 1
2() = 2(2a - 1) <em>multiplied both sides by 2 </em>
ab = 4a - 2 <em>distributed the 2 on the right side</em>
ab - 4a = -2 <em>subtracted 4a from both sides</em>
a(b - 4) = -2 factored out "a" from the left side
a = 
<em>divided (b - 4) on both sides</em>
Answer: a =
First multiply 76 by 80/100
(76 x 80 )/100 = 60.8
Now because the price has to be reduced...
76 - 60.8 = $15.2
Hope this will help.
The answer to that is 80 percent as a fraction is 8/10
Answer:
a solution is 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4
Step-by-step explanation:
for the equation
(1 + x⁴) dy + x*(1 + 4y²) dx = 0
(1 + x⁴) dy = - x*(1 + 4y²) dx
[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = [-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
now to solve each integral
I₁= ∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) + C₁
I₂= ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
for u= x² → du=x*dx
I₂= ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx = -∫[1/(1 + u² )] du = - tan⁻¹ (u) +C₂ = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C₂
then
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C
for y(x=1) = 0
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*0) = - tan⁻¹ (1²) +C
since tan⁻¹ (1²) for π/4+ π*N and tan⁻¹ (0) for π*N , we will choose for simplicity N=0 . hen an explicit solution would be
1/2 * 0 = - π/4 + C
C= π/4
therefore
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4
