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den301095 [7]
2 years ago
12

All power plants use fuel to supply energy that turns into:

Physics
1 answer:
AnnZ [28]2 years ago
4 0

Answer: Electrical energy

Explanation:

A power plant is considering an industrial facility that has the ability to generate electricity from its primary energy.

There could be used one or more generator when it comes to power plants and their function is to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy in order to supply power to the electrical grid for other people that are needing electricity and more.

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Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
2 years ago
Help please due by 3:00
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

  zero

Explanation:

Acceleration is a measure of the rate of change of velocity. If the velocity is unchanging, its rate of change is zero.

The acceleration is zero.

8 0
3 years ago
How many earth years does it take mars to orbit the sun
Colt1911 [192]

This is a question that would have literally have taken two seconds to look up on google but the answer is 1.88 years.

4 0
2 years ago
Suppose your friend claims to have discovered a mysterious force in nature that acts on all particles in some region of space. H
kirill [66]

Answer:

             U = 1 / r²

Explanation:

In this exercise they do not ask for potential energy giving the expression of force, since these two quantities are related

             

         F = - dU / dr

this derivative is a gradient, that is, a directional derivative, so we must have

          dU = - F. dr

the esxresion for strength is

         F = B / r³

let's replace

          ∫ dU = - ∫ B / r³  dr

in this case the force and the displacement are parallel, therefore the scalar product is reduced to the algebraic product

let's evaluate the integrals

            U - Uo = -B (- / 2r² + 1 / 2r₀²)

To complete the calculation we must fix the energy at a point, in general the most common choice is to make the potential energy zero (Uo = 0) for when the distance is infinite (r = ∞)

             U = B / 2r²

we substitute the value of B = 2

             U = 1 / r²

5 0
2 years ago
Triangle XYZ has vertices X(0, 2), Y(4, 4), and Z(3, –1). Graph △XYZ and its image after a rotation of 180° about (2, –3).
Alla [95]

The image of the triangle is to be formed by rotating ΔXYZ 180 degrees about the (2, -3) as shown in the graph.

<h3>What is Geometry?</h3>

It deals with the size of geometry, region, and density of the different forms both 2D and 3D.

Triangle XYZ has vertices X(0, 2), Y(4, 4), and Z(3, –1).

If the triangle is ΔXYZ. Then the image of the triangle is to be formed by rotating ΔXYZ 180 degrees about the (2, -3) as shown in the graph.

More about the geometry link is given below.

brainly.com/question/7558603

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
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