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3 years ago

1. The electromagnetic waves described in the reading are different in which two ways:

Physics

1 answer:

Kipish [7]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

D is the answer

Explanation:

But do u know if im right test it out then surprise

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A ball is dropped from the top of a building.After 2 seconds, it’s velocity is measured to be 19.6 m/s. Calculate the accelerati

zlopas [31]

Answer:

acceleration, a = 9.8 m/s²

Explanation:

'A ball is dropped from the top of a building' indicates that the initial velocity of the ball is zero.

u = 0 m/s

After 2 seconds, velocity of the ball is 19.6 m/s.

t = 2s, v = 19.6 m/s

Using

v = u + at

19.6 = 0 + 2a

a = 9.8 m/s²

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An astronaut inside a spacecraft, which protects her from harmful radiation, is orbiting a black hole at a distance of 120 km fr

mestny [16]

An astronaut inside a spacecraft, which protects her from harmful radiation, is orbiting a black hole at a distance of 120 km from its center. The black hole is 5.00 times the mass of the sun and has a Schwarzschild radius of 15.0 km. The astronaut is positioned inside the spaceship such that one of her 0.030 kg ears is 6.0 cm farther from the black hole than the center of mass of the spacecraft and the other ear is 6.0 cm closer.

What is the tension between her ears?

Would the astronaut find it difficult to keep from being torn apart by the gravitational forces?

Answer:

The tension between the ears = 2.07 KN

The astronaut will find it difficult to keep and will eventually be in trouble because the tension is now greater compared to the tension in the human tissues.

Explanation:

Given that:

Orbital radius of the spacecraft (R) = 120 Km = 120 × 10³ m

Mass of the black hole (m) = $5 \ * (M \ _{sun})$

where : $M_{sun} = 1.99*10^{33} \ kg$

Then; we have:

$m = 5*(1.99*10^{30} \ kg ) \\ = 9.95*10^{30} kg$

Schwarzchild radius of the black hole

r - 15.0 km

Mass of each ear $m_{ear} = 0.030 \ kg$

Farther distance between one ear and the black hole (d) = 6.0 cm

= 0.06 m

Closer distance between the other ear and the black home is (d) 6.0 cm

= 0.6 cm

NOW, If we assume that the tension force should be T; then definitely the two ears will posses the same angular velocity .

The net force on the ear closer to the black hole will be:

$\frac{GMm_{ear} }{(R-d)}- T = m_{ear} (R - d) \omega^2$

$\frac{GMm_{ear} }{(R-d)^2}- \frac{T}{(R-d)} = m_{ear} \omega^2 \ ----> \ (1)$

The net force on the ear farther to the black hole is :

$\frac{GMm_{ear} }{(R+d)}- T = m_{ear} (R + d) \omega^2$

$\frac{GMm_{ear} }{(R+d)^2}- \frac{T}{(R+d)} = m_{ear} \omega^2 \ ----> \ (2)$

Equating equation (1) and (2) & therefore making (T) the subject of the formula; we have:

$T = \frac{3GMm_{ear}d}{R^3}$

$T = \frac{3(6.67*10^{-11}N.m^2/kg^2)(1.95*10^{30}kg)(0.03kg)(0.06m)}{(120*10^3m)^3}$

$T = 2073.9 N\\T = 2.07 KN$

The tension between the ears = 2.07 KN

The astronaut will find it difficult to keep and will eventually be in trouble because the tension is now greater compared to the tension in the human tissues.

3 0

4 years ago

Which is usually greater for a pair of surfaces, the coefficient of static friction or the coefficient of sliding friction? why

lorasvet [3.4K]

Explanation :

Static friction is the frictional force between two objects that are at rest. While sliding friction is the frictional force between two objects in contact and are sliding w.r.t each other.

Static friction is usually greater than sliding friction because in static friction the contact forces is more and the interlocking between objects is tight as compared to sliding friction.

5 0

3 years ago

Planet 1 orbits Star 1 and Planet 2 orbits Star 2 in circular orbits of the same radius. However, the orbital period of Planet 1

hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

The mass of Star 2 is Greater than the mass of Start 1. (This, if we suppose the masses of the planets are much smaller than the masses of the stars)

Explanation:

First of all, let's draw a free body diagram of a planet orbiting a star. (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can build an equation with the sum of forces between the start and the planet.

$\sum F=ma$

We know that the force between two bodies due to gravity is given by the following equation:

$F_{g} = G\frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{r^{2}}$

in this case we will call:

M= mass of the star

m= mass of the planet

r = distance between the star and the planet

G= constant of gravitation.

so:

$F_{g} =G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}$

Also, if the planet describes a circular orbit, the centripetal force is given by the following equation:

$F_{c}=ma_{c}$

where the centripetal acceleration is given by:

$a_{c}=\omega ^{2}r$

where

$\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}$

Where T is the period, and $\omega$ is the angular speed of the planet, so:

$a_{c} = ( \frac{2\pi}{T})^{2}r$

or:

$a_{c}=\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}}$

so:

$F_{c}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

so now we can do the sum of forces:

$\sum F=ma$

$F_{g}=ma_{c}$

$G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

in this case we can get rid of the mass of the planet, so we get:

$G\frac{M}{r^{2}}=(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

we can now solve this for $T^{2}$ so we get:

$T^{2} = \frac{4\pi ^{2}r^{3}}{GM}$

We could take the square root to both sides of the equation but that would not be necessary. Now, the problem tells us that the period of planet 1 is longer than the period of planet 2, so we can build the following inequality:

$T_{1}^{2}>T_{2}^{2}$

So let's see what's going on there, we'll call:

$M_{1}$ = mass of Star 1

$M_{2}$ = mass of Star 2

So:

$\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{1}}>\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{2}}$

we can get rid of all the constants so we end up with:

$\frac{1}{M_{1}}>\frac{1}{M_{2}}$

and let's flip the inequality, so we get:

$M_{2}>M_{1}$

This means that for the period of planet 1 to be longer than the period of planet 2, we need the mass of star 2 to be greater than the mass of star 1. This makes sense because the greater the mass of the star is, the greater the force it applies on the planet is. The greater the force, the faster the planet should go so it stays in orbit. The faster the planet moves, the smaller the period is. In this case, planet 2 is moving faster, therefore it's period is shorter.

6 0

3 years ago

If the net force on a block is zero

amm1812

If the net force on a block is zero, the block will move at constant velocity

Explanation:

We can answer this question by applying Newton's second law of motion, which states that the net force on an object is equal to the product between its mass and its acceleration:

$\sum F = ma$ (1)

where

$\sum F$ is the net force on the object

m is its mass

a is its acceleration

In this problem, we have a block, and the net force on it is zero:

$\sum F = 0$

According to eq.(1), this also implies that

$a=0$

So, the acceleration of the block is zero.

However, acceleration is the rate of change of velocity of a body:

$a=\frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}$

where $\Delta v$ is the change in velocity in a time of $\Delta t$ . Since the acceleration is zero, this means that $\Delta v=0$ , and therefore the velocity of the object is constant.

Learn more about Newton's second law:

brainly.com/question/3820012

#LearnwithBrainly

8 0

3 years ago