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photoshop1234 [79]
3 years ago
5

How does a physicist answer a specific question

Physics
1 answer:
xxMikexx [17]3 years ago
3 0

Explanation:

a physicist guess one or more answers to the single question

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What equations would you use to find force?
Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

F = m x a

Explanation:

F = force

m = mass of an object

a = acceleration

6 0
3 years ago
1. A point scored when the ball passes between the goal posts is considered a
Maru [420]

Answer:

Goal or Field Goal

Explanation:

It is a goal in a sport like hockey or it is a field goal in football.

4 0
3 years ago
If it takes you 20 joules of work to move a couch 10 meters in 10 seconds, what is the power?
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

Power = 2 j/s

Explanation:

Power = Work / Time

= 20/10

= 2 j/s

4 0
2 years ago
Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by
Ulleksa [173]

A) v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B) r=\frac{mv}{qB}

C) T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

D) \omega=\frac{qB}{m}

E) r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

\Delta U = qV

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B)

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

F=qvB

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

F=m\frac{v^2}{r}

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (1)

C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference (2\pi r) and the velocity of the particle (v):

T=\frac{2\pi r}{v} (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

which can be rewritten as

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}

And substitutin into (4), we find:

r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

6 0
3 years ago
If an object is to rest on an incline without slipping, then friction must equal the component of the weight of the object paral
leonid [27]

Answer:

\theta = tan^{-1}\mu

Explanation:

As we know that if the object is placed on the inclined plane then the force of friction on the object is counterbalanced by the component of the weight of the object along the inclined plane.

So we can say

F_f = mgsin\theta

now if we increase the inclination of the plane then the component of the weight weight along the inclined plane will increase and hence the friction force will also increase.

As we know that the limiting value or the maximum value of friction force at the static condition is given by

F_f = \mu N

N = mg cos\theta

so we have

F_f = \mu (mg cos\theta)

so we will have

mg sin\theta = \mu (mg cos\theta)

so now we have

tan\theta = \mu

so maximum possible angle of the inclined plane is

\theta = tan^{-1}\mu

3 0
3 years ago
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