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Artist 52 [7]
3 years ago
7

How do mechanical waves travel through a medium?

Physics
2 answers:
UNO [17]3 years ago
8 0
Particles of the medium move perpendicular to the direction of energy transport. ... Mechanical waves require a medium in order to transport energy. Sound, like any mechanical wave, cannot travel through a vacuum. the particles






EXPLANATION:



uo


max2010maxim [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

sound waves need to travel through a medium such as solids,liquids and gases. hoped this helped  

Explanation:

sound waves

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You are traveling on an interstate highway at the posted speed limit of 70 mph when you see that the traffic in front of you has
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:8.75 s,

136.89 m

Explanation:

Given

Initial velocity=70 mph\approx 31.29 m/s

velocity after 5 s is 30 mph\approx 13.41 m/s

Therefore acceleration during these 5 s

a=\frac{v-u}{t}

a=\frac{13.41-31.29}{5}=-3.576 m/s^2

therefore time required to stop

v=u+at

here v=final velocity =0 m/s

initial velocity =31.29 m/s

0=31.29-3.576\times t

t=\frac{31.29}{3.576}=8.75 s

(b)total distance traveled before stoppage

v^2-u^2=2as

0^2-31.29^2=2\times (-3.576)\cdot s

s=136.89 m

3 0
3 years ago
Belly-flop Bernie dives from atop a tall flagpole into a swimming pool below. His potential energy at the top is 7000 J (relativ
elena55 [62]

Answer:

KE₂ = 6000 J

Explanation:

Given that

Potential energy at top U₁= 7000 J

Potential energy at bottom U₂= 1000 J

The kinetic energy at top ,KE₁= 0 J

Lets take kinetic energy at bottom level =  KE₂

Now from energy conservation

U₁+ KE₁= U₂+ KE₂

Now by putting the values

U₁+ KE₁= U₂+ KE₂

7000+ 0 = 1000+ KE₂

KE₂ = 7000 - 1000 J

KE₂ = 6000 J

Therefore the kinetic energy at bottom is 6000 J.

5 0
3 years ago
A suitcase has a width of 55 cm. Which unit conversation fraction should you use to find the width in inches?
Crank

Answer:

2,54 cm are equal to 1 inch

Explanation:

Doing the conversion:

55[cm]*\frac{1[inch]}{2,54[cm]} =21,65[inch]

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose our experimenter repeats his experiment on a planet more massive than Earth, where the acceleration due to gravity is g
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

- Let acceleration due to gravity @ massive planet be a = 30 m/s^2

- Let acceleration due to gravity @ earth be g = 30 m/s^2

Solution:

- The average time taken for the ball to cover a distance h from chin to ground with acceleration a on massive planet is:

                                 t = v / a

                                 t = v / 30

- The average time taken for the ball to cover a distance h from chin to ground with acceleration g on earth is:

                                 t = v / g

                                 t = v / 9.81

- Hence, we can see the average time taken by the ball on massive planet is less than that on earth to reach back to its initial position. Hence, option C

7 0
3 years ago
What is the distance from the crest to the equilibrium of a wave called? A. amplitude B. period C. frequency D. phase
Goryan [66]

its the first one. A.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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