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lisabon 2012 [21]
3 years ago
5

What is the normal force in the image below?

Physics
1 answer:
saveliy_v [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

980.7N

Explanation:

F = m * g

F = 100 * 9.807m/s^{2}

F = 980.7N

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Explaining How Momentum Can Cause
Ghella [55]

Answer:

The astronaut can throw the hammer in a direction away from the space station. While he is holding the hammer, the total momentum of the astronaut and hammer is 0 kg • m/s. According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum after he throws the hammer must still be 0 kg • m/s. In order for momentum to be conserved, the astronaut will have to move in the opposite direction of the hammer, which will be toward the space station.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A package of mass m is released from rest at a warehouse loading dock and slides down a 3.0-m-high frictionless chute to a waiti
LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:

The speed of the package of mass m right before the collision = 7.668\ ms^-1

Their common speed after the collision = 2.56\ ms^-1

Height achieved by the package of mass m when it rebounds = 0.33\ m

Explanation:

Have a look to the diagrams attached below.

a.To find the speed of the package of mass m right before collision we have to use law of conservation of energy.

K_{initial} + U_{initial} = K_{final}+U_{final}

where K is Kinetic energy and U is Potential energy.

K= \frac{mv^2}{2} and U= mgh

Considering the fact  K_{initial} = 0\ and U_{final} =0 we will plug out he values of the given terms.

So V_{1}{(initial)} =\sqrt{2gh} = \sqrt{2\times9.8\times3} = 7.668\ ms^-1

Keypoints:

  • Sum of energies and momentum are conserved in all collisions.
  • Sum of KE and PE is also known as Mechanical energy.
  • Only KE is conserved for elastic collision.
  • for elastic collison we have e=1 that is co-efficient of restitution.

<u>KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy</u>

b.Now when the package stick together there momentum is conserved.

Using law of conservation of momentum.

m_1V_1(i) = (m_1+m_2)V_f where V_1{i} =7.668\ ms^-1.

Plugging the values we have

m\times 7.668 = (3m)\times V_{f}

Cancelling m from both sides and dividing 3 on both sides.

V_f = 2.56\ ms^-1

Law of conservation of energy will be followed over here.

c.Now the collision is perfectly elastic e=1

We have to find the value of V_{f} for m mass.

As here V_{f}=-2.56\ ms^-1 we can use that if both are moving in right ward with 2.56 then there is a  -2.56 velocity when they have to move leftward.

The best option is to use the formulas given in third slide to calculate final velocity of object 1.

So

V_{1f} = \frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2} \times V_{1i}= \frac{m-2m}{3m} \times7.668=\frac{-7.668}{3} = -2.56\ ms^-1

Now using law of conservation of energy.

K_{initial} + U_{initial} = K_{final}+U_{final}

\frac{m\times V(f1)^2}{2} + 0 = 0 +mgh

\frac{v(f1)^2}{2g} = h

h= \frac{(-2.56)^2}{9.8\times 3} =0.33\ m

The linear momentum is conserved before and after this perfectly elastic collision.

So for part a we have the speed =7.668\ ms^-1 for part b we have their common speed =2.56\ ms^-1 and for part c we have the rebound height =0.33\ m.

3 0
3 years ago
assuming birdman flies at height of 72m, how fast should he fly to hit bucket at 63m from start of field. gravity is -9.8m/s^2 n
algol [13]

Answer:

.....Birdman?

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Please dont ask people to be "Bf" and "gf" On this app. This is for school. So all of you please be safe!! Thank you.
Ksju [112]
People do that on here?
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A horse shoe magnet is placed on a mass balance such that a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B runs between it from North to
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

(a) Measured change in mass (Δm) = BVL/Rg

(b) Total measured mass M' = M - BVL/Rg

Explanation:

Current (I) across is coil is given by the formula;

I = V/R ------------------------1

The magnetic force is given by the formula;

Fb = B*I*L -------------------2

Putting equation 1 into equation 2, we have;

Fb = B*V*L/R -------------------3

Change in mass (Δm) is given as:

Δm = Fb/g -----------------------4

Putting equation 3 into equation 4, we have;

Δm = BVL/Rg

   Therefore,  change in mass (Δm) = BVL/Rg

2. Since B runs from North to South and current running from East to West, then the magnetic force is directed upward.

Therefore,

Total measure mass M' = M - BVL/Rg

4 0
3 years ago
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