Answer:
a = 2d / t²
Explanation:
d = ½ at²
Multiply both sides by 2:
2d = at²
Divide both sides by t²:
a = 2d / t²
Consider that the bar magnet has a magnetic field that is acting around it, which will imply that there is a change in the magnetic flux through the loop whenever it moves towards the conducting loop. This could be described as an induction of the electromotive Force in the circuit from Faraday's law.
In turn by Lenz's law, said electromotive force opposes the change in the magnetic flux of the circuit. Therefore, there is a force that opposes the movement of the bar magnet through the conductor loop. Therefore, the bar magnet does not suffer free fall motion.
The bar magnet does not move as a freely falling object.
Answer:
0.25 m.
Explanation:
We'll begin by calculating the spring constant of the spring.
From the diagram, we shall used any of the weight with the corresponding extention to determine the spring constant. This is illustrated below:
Force (F) = 0.1 N
Extention (e) = 0.125 m
Spring constant (K) =?
F = Ke
0.1 = K x 0.125
Divide both side by 0.125
K = 0.1/0.125
K = 0.8 N/m
Therefore, the force constant, K of spring is 0.8 N/m
Now, we can obtain the number in gap 1 in the diagram above as follow:
Force (F) = 0.2 N
Spring constant (K) = 0.8 N/m
Extention (e) =..?
F = Ke
0.2 = 0.8 x e
Divide both side by 0.8
e = 0.2/0.8
e = 0.25 m
Therefore, the number that will complete gap 1is 0.25 m.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
if no force acts upon it it will just continue moving
hope this helps!! have a wonderfull day!
<span>The meaning of the Big Bang has been very often misunderstood. It is thought that something exploded somewhere and then the exploded part expanded to where we are currently. I hope this did help If not I`m so sorry.</span>
