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Marat540 [252]
3 years ago
5

A company uses a standard-cost system. The company prepared the following budget using normal capacity for the month of May: Dir

ect labor hours 36,000 Variable factory overhead $ 72,000 Fixed factory overhead $162,000 Actual results were as follows: Direct labor hours worked 33,000 Total factory overhead $220,500 Standard DLH allowed for capacity attained 31,500 What is the budget (controllable) variance for May using the two-way analysis of overhead variances
Business
1 answer:
ExtremeBDS [4]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$4,500 favorable

Explanation:

The computation of the budget (controllable) variance for May using the two-way analysis of overhead variances is shown below:

Variable overhead per labor hour os

= $72,000 ÷ 36000

= $2 per hour

Now

Budgeted overhead for actual production is

= (31,500 × $2) + $162,000

= $225,000

So,

Controllable variance is

= Budgeted overhead for actual production - Actual overhead

= $225,000 - $220,500

= $4,500 favorable

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An informal session of 6 to 10 customers in which a moderator asks their opinions about a firm's and its competitors' products,
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

Focus group

Explanation:

Focus group is a small group of people who are introduced in an open discussion for research purpose. In the given question there is a informal session with 6 - 10 customers in which their opinions are considered about a firms products. This is a small group session which is initiated to identify product features and how these customers use these products. This is focus group for research purpose.

7 0
3 years ago
Pumpkin Inc. sold $500 in pumpkins to a customer on account on January 1. On January 11 Pumpkin collected the cash from that cus
Dennis_Churaev [7]
A no net effect to the accounting equation
6 0
3 years ago
A small delivery truck was purchased on January 1 at a cost of $25,000. It has an estimated useful life of four years and an est
Blababa [14]

Answer:

depreciation expense        accumulated deprecation      book value

$5,000                                   $5,000                                        $20,000

$5,000                                     $10,000                                      $15,000

$5,000                                     $15,000                                      $10,000

$5,000                                     $20,000                                      $ 5000

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($25,000 - $5000) / 4 = $5,000

Book value in year in subsequent years = previous book value - that year's depreciation expense

Year 1's book value = $25,000 - $5000 = $20,000

Year 2's book value =  $20,000 - $5000 = $15,000

Year 1's book value = $15,000 - $5000 = 10,000

Year 1's book value = $10,000 -  $5,000 = $5,000

Accumulated depreciation is sum of depreciation expense

Year 1 = 5,000

year 2 = 5000 x 2 = 10,000

year 3 = 5000 x 3 = 15,000

year 4 = 5000 x 4 = 20,000

6 0
3 years ago
Department F had 4,000 units in Work in Process that were 40% completed at the beginning of the period at a cost of $13,400. Of
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

a.$3.35

Explanation:

The first step in determining  conversion cost per unit is to calculate the Total Equivalent units of production for Conversion Costs.

Conversion Costs

Units Completed and transferred (15,000 × 100%) = 15,000

Units in Ending Work In Process (3,000 × 75%)      =  2,250

Total Equivalent units of production                        =  17,250

The next step is to determine the total conversion cost of production incurred during the period.

Conversion Costs

Conversion Costs in Beginning Work In Process                               $4,800

Conversion Costs added during the period ($33,000 + $20,000) $53,000

Total Conversion Costs                                                                      $57,800

Finally calculate the conversion cost per unit

Conversion cost per unit = Total Conversion Costs  / Total Equivalent units of production

                                         = $57,800 / 17,250

                                         = $3.35 (to the nearest cent)

4 0
3 years ago
Owner made no investments in the business, and no dividends were paid during the year. Owner made no investments in the business
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

A corporation had the following assets and liabilities at the beginning and end of this year.

                                                     Assets             Liabilities

Beginning of the year             $ 76,500             $ 32,796

End of the year                           132,000               53,460

    Details                                                a           b        c       d

1 Beginning of the year Equity    43,704      43,704    43,704     43,704

2 Owner's investment (+)                 -         -           45,000      35,000

3 Dividends (-)                                 -          10,200        -     10,200

4 Net income / loss (+)               34836     45,036     -10164       10,036

5 End of the year Equity          78540      78540      78540      78540

Explanation:

Equity = Assets - Liability

Beginning of the year = 76500 - 32796 = $43,704

End of the year = 132000 - 53460 = 78540

Net income = End of year equity -  (Beginning of the year Equity + Owner's Investment - Dividends)

a) Net income = 5 -  (1 + 2 - 3)

                   = 78540 - (43704  + 0 - 0)

                   = 34,836

b) Dividend of 850 per month = 850 * 12 = 10,200

Net income = 5 -  (1 + 2 - 3)

                   = 78540 - (43704  + 0 - 10200)

                   = 45,036

c) Net Income = 5 -  (1 + 2 - 3)

                       = 78540 - (43704  + 45000 - 0)

                       = -10,164

d) Dividend of 850 per month = 850 * 12 = 10,200

Net Income = 5 -  (1 + 2 - 3)

                     = 78540 - (43704  + 35000 - 10200)

                       = 10,036

Owner's investment increases equity

Dividends reduce equity

Net Income increases equity

6 0
3 years ago
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