All categories

3 years ago

HELPPP why is the united states considered energy rich, while japan is considered energy poor

Physics

1 answer:

Temka [501]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Energy resources can be measured. They will include the fossil fuels, geothermal and hydroelectric potential, and increasingly the renewable resources. When the US list is compared to the World it is considered energy Rich. When Japan's list is compared to the world standard it considered energy poor.

A changing technology like nuclear fusion could substantially change the assessment.

Japan does not have any substantial, oil, coal, gas, deposits, while the US does.

Explanation:

You might be interested in

The wavelength of the light is 0.63 micrometers. How much of this length stays in 1 centimeter

bazaltina [42]

11,066,669.
hope it help.

7 0

3 years ago

In the physics lab, a block of mass M slides down a frictionless incline from a height of 35cm. At the bottom of the incline it

bogdanovich [222]

Solution :

Given :

M = 0.35 kg

$m=\frac{M}{2}=0.175 \ kg$

Total mechanical energy = constant

or $K.E._{top}+P.E._{top} = K.E._{bottom}+P.E._{bottom}$

But $K.E._{top} = 0$ and $P.E._{bottom} = 0$

Therefore, potential energy at the top = kinetic energy at the bottom

$\Rightarrow mgh = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$

$\Rightarrow v = \sqrt{2gh}$

$=\sqrt{2 \times 9.8 \times 0.35}$ (h = 35 cm = 0.35 m)

= 2.62 m/s

It is the velocity of M just before collision of 'm' at the bottom.

We know that in elastic collision velocity after collision is given by :

$v_1=\frac{m_1-m_2}{m_1+m_2}v_1+ \frac{2m_2v_2}{m_1+m_2}$

here, $m_1=M, m_2 = m, v_1 = 2.62 m/s, v_2 = 0$

∴ $$v_1=\frac{0.35-0.175}{0.5250}+\frac{2 \times 0.175 \times 0}{0.525}$

$=\frac{0.175}{0.525}+0$

= 0.33 m/s

Therefore, velocity after the collision of mass M = 0.33 m/s

3 0

3 years ago

Can something have energy without having momentum? explain. can something have momentum without having energy? defend your answe

marta [7]

Momentum is a product mass and velocity. If a certain object posses a kinetic energy, then it should have a momentum since it is moving which has a velocity. However, if the object is at rest and only has potential energy, then it would not have momentum. So, for the first question the answer would be yes, an object can have energy without having any momentum. For the second question, every object whether it is moving or at rest, possess some energy, potential for an object at rest and kinetic for an object that is moving. Thus, the answer would be no, an object having momentum would always have energy.

8 0

3 years ago

Can the object be in motion if the net force acting on it is zero? explain.

artcher [175]

When object travels with uniform velocity, no force acts on it. hence , yes.

3 0

3 years ago

To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as a pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have l

lora16 [44]

I think its a tbh bc it seems to be the best answer out of a b c and d

6 0

3 years ago