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Komok [63]
2 years ago
9

Susie rolls a bowling ball down the alley and knocks over most of the pins. Explain why fewer pins were knocked over when her li

ttle brother rolled a basketball, at the same velocity, down the alley.
Physics
1 answer:
marysya [2.9K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The force used

Explanation:

This has to be because of the force used. Both Susie and her younger brother might have hit the ball with the same velocity, but they surely couldn't have hit it with the same force. The force with which Susie hurts it is heavier than that with which her younger brother hits it, and as such, Susie gets to fall down more pins than her brother will be able to. The ball has to have a lot of force in it for it to be able to knock off all the pins there. So basically, the more the force, the higher it's chances of hitting all the pins

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a spring with a constant of 80N/m is stretched by a force of 240N. how much the displacement of the spring from equilibrium?
Inessa05 [86]

Answer:

1200N/m

Explanation:

given parameters:

force on the motorcycle spring is 240N

Extension 2cm or 0.02m

unknown _

spring constant:

:?

solution:

to a spring a force applied is given as :

f=ke

f is applied as force

k is spring constant

e is the Extension

240= kx0.02

k=1200N/m

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2 years ago
What is the term that describes the amount of water in a volume of air at a specific temperature compared to the amount of water
Natasha_Volkova [10]
I believe it is relative humidity.
6 0
3 years ago
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4 A magnet can exert a force of attraction or a force of repulsion on another magnet.
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

Push -repulsion

Pull - attraction

Explanation:

When two magnets are brought together, a push happens when a force of repulsion is experienced where the magnets move away from each other. This means their polarity is the same and this will cause the magnet to push away from each other.

When two magnets are brought together , a pull happens when a force of attraction is experienced where the magnets move close to each other. This means their polarity is different and thus causes the magnets to pull closer to each other.

7 0
2 years ago
Practice 3: Label the correct phase that would result from the Moon and Earth in these positions.
Anna71 [15]

Answer:

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5 0
3 years ago
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An ideal ammeter would have zero resistance while an ideal voltmeter would have infinite resistance, why?.
Dafna1 [17]

Answer: An ideal ammeter would have zero resistance, because to ensure that, there is no voltage drop due to the internal resistance. Similarly, an ideal voltmeter would have infinite resistance, because to ensure that there is no current is drawn by the voltmeter.

Explanation: To find the answer, we need to know about the Ammeter and Voltmeter.

<h3>What is an ammeter?</h3>
  • An ammeter is a device, that can be used to measure the electric current flows through a circuit in amperes.
  • An ideal ammeter would have zero resistance, because to ensure that, there is no voltage drop due to the internal resistance when it is connected in series to measure the current.
<h3>What is voltmeter?</h3>
  • A voltmeter is a device, that can be used to measure the electric potential difference generated between the terminals of an electric circuit in volts.
  • An ideal voltmeter would have infinite resistance, because to ensure that there is no current is drawn by the voltmeter, when it is connected in parallel to measure the voltage.

Thus, we can conclude that, an ideal ammeter would have zero resistance, because to ensure that, there is no voltage drop due to the internal resistance. Similarly, an ideal voltmeter would have infinite resistance, because to ensure that there is no current is drawn by the voltmeter.

Learn more about the ammeter and voltmeter here:

brainly.com/question/28044897

#SPJ4

6 0
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