What was your train of thought as you navigated the picture of the candle?

Your mass in kilograms if you weight 170 pounds

Aleonysh [2.5K]

1 pound ≈ 0.4536 kg

170 pounds ≈ 170 * 0.4536 kg

≈ 77.112 kg

5 0

3 years ago

Gina is driving her car down the street. She has a teddy bear sitting on the back seat. A dog runs in front of Gina's car, so sh

ser-zykov [4K]

Teddyber continue to move forward because Newton law 1. moving object continue to move until something external make it to stop. no seat belt on teddy ber so only dashboard can make her stop. same if people in car and no seatbelt.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How Can the human ear detect the sound

mart [117]

Answer:

Sound waves enter the outer ear and travel through a narrow passageway called the ear canal, which leads to the eardrum. The eardrum vibrates from the incoming sound waves and sends these vibrations to three tiny bones in the middle ear.

8 0

3 years ago

provides some pertinent background for this problem. A pendulum is constructed from a thin, rigid, and uniform rod with a small

gavmur [86]

Answer:

the period of the physical pendulum is 0.498 s

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

$T_{simple$ = 0.61 s

we know that, the relationship between T and angular frequency is;

T = 2π/ω ---------- let this be equation 1

Also, the angular frequency of physical pendulum is;

ω = √(mgL / $I$ ) ------ let this equation 2

where m is mass of pendulum, L is distance between axis of rotation and the center of gravity of rod and $I$ is moment of inertia of rod.

Now, moment of inertia of thin uniform rod D is;

$I$ = $\frac{1}{3}$ mD²

since we were not given the length of the rod but rather the period of the simple pendulum, lets combine this three equations.

we substitute equation 2 into equation 1

we have;

T = 2π/ω OR T = 2π/√(mgL/ $I$ ) OR T = 2π√( $I$ /mgL)

so we can use $I$ = $\frac{1}{3}$ mD² for moment of inertia of the rod

Since center of gravity of the uniform rod lies at the center of rod

so that L = $\frac{1}{2}$ D.

now, substituting these equations, the period becomes;

T = 2π/√( $I$ /mgL) OR T = $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{\frac{1}{3}mD^2 }{mg(\frac{1}{2})D } }$ OR T = 2π√(2D/3g ) ----- equation 3

length of rod D is still unknown, so from equation 1 and 2 ( period of pendulum ),

we have;

ω $_{simple$ = 2π/ $T_{simple$ OR ω $_{simple$ = √(g/D) OR ω $_{simple$ = 2π√( D/g )

so we simple solve for D/g and insert into equation 3

so we have;

T = √(2/3) × $T_{simple$

we substitute in value of $T_{simple$

T = √(2/3) × 0.61 s

T = 0.498 s

Therefore, the period of the physical pendulum is 0.498 s

8 0

3 years ago

Why does a lorry travelling at 30mph have more kinetic energy than a car travelling at the same velocity?

rjkz [21]

Answer:

Because it has more mass

Explanation:

To understand this, think about the equation of kinetic energy

KE = $\frac{1}{2}$ m $v^{2}$

Kinetic energy depends on both the velocity (v) as well as the mass (m).

Because a lorry is bigger and heavier than a car, it will have more mass. With more mass, at the same velocity the lorry with have more kinetic energy.

5 0

3 years ago