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Mashutka [201]
2 years ago
5

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Physics
2 answers:
PSYCHO15rus [73]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

ALRRRR

Explanation:

Rudiy272 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Ok I might!

Explanation:

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A hollow cast-iron cylinder 4m long, 300mm outer diameter, and thickness of metal 50mm is subjected to a central load on the top
Sveta_85 [38]

Here, the calculated Magnitude of the load P is 2945.2 kN, the Longitudinal strain produced is 0.0005 and the decrease in length is 2 mm.

Given,

Length, L = 4 m

Outer diameter, D = 300mm, D= 0.3 m

Thickness, t = 50 mm, t = 0.05 m

Stress produced, σ = 75000 kN/m²

Young's modulus for cast iron, E = 1.5 x 10⁸ kN/m²

Calculating the diameter of the cylinder,

Diameter of cylinder, d = (D) – (2t) = 0.3 –( 2 × 0.05)

d= 0.2 m

(i) Magnitude of the load P:

Using the relation, σ =P/A

P = σ × A = 75000 × π /4 (D² – d² )

P= 75000 × π/4 (0.3² – 0.2²)

P= 75000 × π/4 (0.09 – 0.04)

P = 2945.2 kN

Hence, Magnitude of the load P is 2945.2 kN.

(ii) Longitudinal strain produced, e :

Using the relation, Strain, (e) = stress/E

e= 75000/(1.5 x 10⁸)= 0.0005

Hence, the Longitudinal strain produced is 0.0005.

(iii)Total decrease in length, dL:

The total decrease in length can be calculated using the strain as the ratio of change in length to the original length is known as Strain.

Strain = change in length/original length

e= dL/L

0.0005 = dL/4

dL = 0.0005 × 4m = 0.002m=2mm

Hence,the decrease in length is 2 mm.

Learn more about Elasticity here:

brainly.com/question/15230910

#SPJ10

5 0
2 years ago
Show all work please I am stuck​
MissTica

Answer:

Explanation:

1 meter = 39.37 inches

meters x inches/meters = inches

6.23x10^-4 m x 39.37 in./m=0.245...=2.45x10^-2

5 0
2 years ago
A train is moving at a speed of 50 km/h. How many hours will it take thetrain to travel 600 kilometers
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

12

Explanation:

600/50 is 12 so the answer is twelve

5 0
2 years ago
Two vectors are presented as a=3.0i +5.0j and b=2.0i+4.0j find (a) a x b, ab (c) (a+b)b and (d) the component of a along the dir
Svet_ta [14]
Let's ask this question step by step:
 Part A) 
 a x b = (3.0i + 5.0j) x (2.0i + 4.0j) = (12-10) k = 2k
 ab = (3.0i + 5.0j). (2.0i + 4.0j) = 6 + 20 = 26
 Part (c)
 (a + b) b = [(3.0i + 5.0j) + (2.0i + 4.0j)]. (2.0i + 4.0j)
 (a + b) b = (5.0i + 9.0j). (2.0i + 4.0j)
 (a + b) b = 10 + 36
 (a + b) b = 46
 Part (d)
 comp (ba) = (a.b) / lbl
 a.b = (3.0i + 5.0j). (2.0i + 4.0j) = 6 + 20 = 26
 lbl = root ((2.0) ^ 2 + (4.0) ^ 2) = root (20)
 comp (ba) = 26 / root (20)
 answer
 2k
 26
 46
 26 / root (20)
3 0
3 years ago
A penny rides on top of a piston as it undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4.0cm. If the frequency is
aniked [119]

1) At the moment of being at the top, the piston will not only tend to push the penny up but will also descend at a faster rate at which the penny can reach in 'free fall', in that short distance. Therefore, at the highest point, the penny will lose contact with the piston. Therefore the correct answer is C.

2) To solve this problem we will apply the equations related to the simple harmonic movement, hence we have that the acceleration can be defined as

a = -\omega^2 A

Where,

a = Acceleration

A = Amplitude

\omega= Angular velocity

From a reference system in which the downward acceleration is negative due to the force of gravity we will have to

a = -g

-\omega^2 A = -g

\omega = \sqrt{\frac{g}{A}}

From the definition of frequency and angular velocity we have to

\omega = 2\pi f

f = \frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{g}{A}}

f = \frac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\frac{9.8}{4*10^{-2}}}

f = 2.5Hz

Therefore the maximum frequency for which the penny just barely remains in place for the full cycle is 2.5Hz

6 0
3 years ago
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