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2 years ago

Please help the question is the picture below.

Physics

2 answers:

balu736 [363]2 years ago

8 0

Its 30 kg cause I got 30 kg dude.

Mariulka [41]2 years ago

8 0

i’ve done it on paper.

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Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

Performance tests can be used to see if an implemented training program is working for the athlete or if the program needs alterations. They can also assess current abilities in specific athletic areas to help the athlete choose what to focus their energy on improving.

Explanation:

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3 years ago

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Three monkeys A, B, and C weighing 20, 26, and 25 lb, respectively, are climbing up and down the rope suspended from D. At the i

Marina86 [1]

Answer: $2235.2lb-ft/s^2$

Explanation:

Given

Mass of monkey A=20lb

Mass of monkey B=26lb

Mass of monkey C=25lb

acceleration of monkey A= $4.2ft/s^2$

acceleration of monkey B=0

acceleration of monkey C= $-5.4ft/s^2$

Force Due to monkey A $\left ( F_A\right )=20\times 4.2 =84lb-ft/s^2\left ( downwards\right )$

Force Due to monkey A $\left ( F_B\right )=26\times 0 =0lb-ft/s^2$

Force Due to monkey A $\left ( F_C\right )=25\times 5.4 =135 lb-ft/s^2\left ( upward\right )$

In addition to it Weights of monkeys will be acting downwards therefore net Downwards force is balanced by tension

T= $\left ( 20+26+25\right )32.2+84-135=2235.2 lb-ft/s^2$

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3 years ago

What is the vertical acceleration of a paper airplane that is launched horizontally with an initial velocity of 2.3 m/s?

mr_godi [17]

Answer:

<em>The vertical acceleration is -9.81 m/s^2</em>

Explanation:

When a body is projected, the body experiences an acceleration in the vertical axis that is proportional to the acceleration due to gravity of the earth, which is equal to 9.81 m/s^2. In this case, the acceleration acts to stop the vertical motion of the paper plane, and hence is a deceleration, which explains the negative vertical acceleration.

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3 years ago

Razona si, en las experiencias de Faraday, el efecto producido moviendo el circuito será el mismo que el producido moviendo el i

const2013 [10]

Answer:

moving the circuit or the magnet gives the same result

Explanation:

The faraday effect establishes that the temporal variation of imaginative flow produces an electric potential

fem = $\frac{d \phi }{dt}$ dfi / dt

the magnetic flux is

Ф = B. A = B A cos θ

suppose for simplicity that the angle is zero so cos 0 = 1

Φ = B A

By analyzing this expression, the change in magnetic flux can converge while keeping the magnetic field fixed and varying the electric field or keeping the electric field fixed and varying the magnetic field.

Consequently moving the circuit or the magnet gives the same result

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3 years ago

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vodka [1.7K]

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3 years ago

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