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3 years ago

Why does a light bike have more kinetic energy

Physics

1 answer:

FrozenT [24]3 years ago

3 0

Because it doesn't use energy it uses mechanical and kinetic

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13. Determine the kinetic energy of a 2000g roller coaster car that is moving with a speed of 2m/s.

zubka84 [21]

Answer:

4 Joules (if you mean 2000 grams)

4000 Joules (if you mean 2000 kilograms)

Explanation:

<h2><u><em>PLEASE MARK AS BRAINLIEST!!!!!</em></u></h2>

8 0

3 years ago

Ryan runs 50 m north and then 50 m east. What is his displacement?

san4es73 [151]

Answer:

Explanation:

Distance and direction of an object's change in position from a starting point. Displacement. 3. Jermaine runs exactly 2 laps around a 400 meter track. What is the displacement? 0 ... David walks 3 km north, and then turns east and walks 4 km. ... A person walks 50 meters directly north, stops, and then travels 32 meters

3 0

3 years ago

The distance from earth to teh sun usb approxximately 93 million miles. a scientist would write that number as

erastova [34]

A scientist would write that number as 1.49 x 10⁸ kilometers .

(Or, if the scientist is in France or the UK, he might write it as 1.49 x 10⁸ kilometres .)

6 0

3 years ago

A child is sliding down a slide at the playgound. is mechanicalenergy conserved

Flauer [41]

No. Mechanical energy is not conserved. There's quite a bit of friction on the slide. So some of the potential energy is lost to heat on the way down, and the child arrives at the bottom with hot pants and less kinetic energy than you might expect.

5 0

3 years ago

If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0

3 years ago