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zimovet [89]
3 years ago
9

How fast was a plane flying if it traveled 500 km in 30 min?

Physics
2 answers:
anyanavicka [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

16.7 km per min

Explanation:

divided 500 and 30

vazorg [7]3 years ago
5 0
16.666 (keeps going)
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The ideal mechanical advantage of a machine reflects the increase or decrease in force there world be without friction, it is al
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True: the ideal mechanical advantage of a machine is always greater than the actual mechanical advantage because all machines must overcome friction.

Explanation:

For a simple machine, it is possible to calculate two types of mechanical advantage:

1) The Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA) is given by

IMA=\frac{d_e}{d_r}

where

d_r is the resistance arm

d_e is the effort arm

The IMA gives the mechanical advantage of the machine if there are no friction forces acting on it, and if all the work in input is converted into work in output with no loss of energy

2) The Actual Mechanical Advantage (AMA) is given by

AMA=\frac{L}{E}

where

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E is the effort (the force in input)

The AMA gives the real mechanical advantage of the machine. For an ideal machine,

AMA=IMA

Because there is no loss of energy due to friction.

For a real machine instead,

AMA

because part of the input energy is converted into thermal energy and other forms of energy due to the presence of friction, so it is "wasted" energy.

Learn more about levers and machines:

brainly.com/question/5352966

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