Answer: <span>Protons do not move out of the nucleus of atoms although they repel each other.
Reasoning:
Remember that protons are particles with positive charge and they held together in the nucleus of the atom which is a tiny tiny region. As you know, like charges repel each other, which means that the protons exert a repulsion force.
That repulsion force tends to destabilize the atom. The only reason why the atom does not explode is because there is a there exists a force of attraction that exceeds the repulsion of the like charged protons. That is the strong nuclear force. Therefore, the strong nuclear forces are stronger than the electromagnetic force that tends to get the protons apart.
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Answer:
Explanation:
Magnitude of force per unit length of wire on each of wires
= μ₀ x 2 i₁ x i₂ / 4π r where i₁ and i₂ are current in the two wires , r is distance between the two and μ₀ is permeability .
Putting the values ,
force per unit length = 10⁻⁷ x 2 x i x 2i / ( 6 x 10⁻³ )
= .67 i² x 10⁻⁴
force on 3 m length
= 3 x .67 x 10⁻⁴ i²
Given ,
8 x 10⁻⁶ = 3 x .67 x 10⁻⁴ i²
i² = 3.98 x 10⁻²
i = 1.995 x 10⁻¹
= .1995
= 0.2 A approx .
2 i = .4 A Ans .
Answer:
62.5 %
Explanation:
Let the initial intensity of unpolarized light is Io.
After first polariser the intensity of light becomes I'.
So, 
Now it passes through another polariser. The angle between the first polariser and the second polariser is given by Ф. The intensity is I''.
According to the law of Malus
Here, Ф = 30 degree
The percentage change in the intensity is given by
= 62.5 %
The problem about describes a perfectly inelastic collision. We are tasked to find the initial velocity of an object having a mass of 6 kg moving due west. It is given in the problem that after collision the cart sticks together and it stops. Thus, the final mass is the sum of the two cart and the final velocity is zero. For a perfectly inelastic collision,
m1v1-m2v2=vf(m1+m2)
By Substitution,
3(4)-6(v2)=0
6v2=12
v2=2
Therefor, the initial velocity if a 6 kg cart is 2 m/s
Answer:
(b) 10 Wb
Explanation:
Given;
angle of inclination of magnetic field, θ = 30°
initial area of the plane, A₁ = 1 m²
initial magnetic flux through the plane, Φ₁ = 5.0 Wb
Magnetic flux is given as;
Φ = BACosθ
where;
B is the strength of magnetic field
A is the area of the plane
θ is the angle of inclination
Φ₁ = BA₁Cosθ
5 = B(1 x cos30)
B = 5/(cos30)
B = 5.7735 T
Now calculate the magnetic flux through a 2.0 m² portion of the same plane
Φ₂ = BA₂Cosθ
Φ₂ = 5.7735 x 2 x cos30
Φ₂ = 10 Wb
Therefore, the magnetic flux through a 2.0 m² portion of the same plane is is 10 Wb.
Option "b"
