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PtichkaEL [24]
2 years ago
15

If using the washer results in the wheel brake units getting wet, ensure that the vehicle is driven for a short distance with th

e brakes slightly applied.
Engineering
2 answers:
gavmur [86]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

If washer results in wheel brake units getting wet, ensure that vehicle is driven for a short distance with the brakes slightly applied. Correct disposal of contaminated materials is a top priority.

Explanation:

Elden [556K]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

whats the question

Explanation:

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The solid rod BC has a diameter of 30 mm and is made of an aluminum for which the allowable shearing stress is 25 MPa. Rod AB is
nexus9112 [7]

Answer:

The solid rod BC has a diameter of 30 mm and is made of an aluminum for which the allowable shearing stress is 25 MPa. Rod AB is hollow and has an outer diameter of 25 mm; it is made of a brass for which the allowable shearing stress is 50 MPa.

4 0
3 years ago
Please answer the questions !
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

120

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
For which of 'water' flow velocities at 200C can we assume that the flow is incompressible ? a.1000 km per hour b. 500 km per ho
ad-work [718]

Answer:d

Explanation:

Given

Temperature=200^{\circ}\approc 473 K

Also \gamma for air=1.4

R=287 J/kg

Flow will be In-compressible when Mach no.<0.32

Mach no.=\frac{V}{\sqrt{\gamma RT}}

(a)1000 km/h\approx 277.78 m/s

Mach no.=\frac{277.78}{\sqrt{1.4\times 287\times 473}}

Mach no.=0.63

(b)500 km/h\approx 138.89 m/s

Mach no.=\frac{138.89}{\sqrt{1.4\times 287\times 473}}

Mach no.=0.31

(c)2000 km/h\approx 555.55 m/s

Mach no.=\frac{555.55}{\sqrt{1.4\times 287\times 473}}

Mach no.=1.27

(d)200 km/h\approx 55.55 m/s

Mach no.=\frac{55.55}{\sqrt{1.4\times 287\times 473}}

Mach no.=0.127

From above results it is clear that for Flow at velocity 200 km/h ,it will be incompressible.

5 0
3 years ago
Steam enters a steady-flow adiabatic nozzle with a low inlet velocity (assume ~0 m/s) as a saturated vapor at 6 MPa and expands
Sergio [31]
Yea bro I don’t really know
7 0
2 years ago
If the bending moment (M) is 4,176 ft-lb and the beam is an 1 beam, calculate the bending stress (psi) developed at a point with
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

Bending stress at point 3.96 is \sigma_b = 1.37 psi

Explanation:

Given data:

Bending Moment M is 4.176 ft-lb = 50.12 in- lb

moment of inertia I = 144 inc^4

y = 3.96 in

\sigma_b = \frac{M}{I} \times y

putting all value to get bending stress

\sigma_b = \frac{50.112}{144} \times 3.96  

\sigma_b =  1.37 psi

Bending stress at point 3.96 is \sigma_b = 1.37 psi

3 0
3 years ago
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