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2 years ago

Friction can be reduced by using ___________.

Physics

2 answers:

Zolol [24]2 years ago

7 0

Answer: Using lubricants such as oil or grease can reduce the friction between the surfaces.

Explanation: When objects are rolled over the surface, the friction between the rolled object and surface can be reduced by using ball bearings.

allsm [11]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Make the surfaces little more smoother. ...

Lubrication is another way to make a surface smoother. ...

Make the object more streamlined. ...

Reduce the Normal force acting between the surfaces in contact. ...

Reduce the contact between the surfaces, so that less number of bonds will be formed.

You might be interested in

A piano tuner strikes a tuning fork at the same time he strikes a piano key with a note of a similar pitch. If he hears 3 beats

DaniilM [7]

The frequency produced by the string could be 437 Hz or it could be 443 Hz.

The frequency of the beats ... 3 Hz ... tells the piano tuner that
the difference between the fork and string frequencies is 3 Hz,
but it doesn't tell her which one is higher or lower.

7 0

2 years ago

A 1 036-kg satellite orbits the Earth at a constant altitude of 98-km. (a) How much energy must be added to the system to move t

Veronika [31]

Answer:

a) The Energy added should be 484.438 MJ

b) The Kinetic Energy change is -484.438 MJ

c) The Potential Energy change is 968.907 MJ

Explanation:

Let 'm' be the mass of the satellite , 'M'(6× $10^{24}$ be the mass of earth , 'R'(6400 Km) be the radius of the earth , 'h' be the altitude of the satellite and 'G' (6.67× $10^{-11}$ N/m) be the universal constant of gravitation.

We know that the orbital velocity(v) for a satellite -

v= $\sqrt{\frac{Gmm}{R+h} }$ [(R+h) is the distance of the satellite from the center of the earth ]

Total Energy(E) = Kinetic Energy(KE) + Potential Energy(PE)

For initial conditions ,

h = $h_{i}$ = 98 km = 98000 m

∴Initial Energy ( $E_{i}$ ) = $\frac{1}{2}$ m $v^{2}$ + $\frac{-GMm}{(R+h_{i} )}$

Substituting v= $\sqrt{\frac{GMm}{R+h_{i} } }$ in the above equation and simplifying we get,

$E_{i}$ = $\frac{-GMm}{2(R+h_{i}) }$

Similarly for final condition,

h= $h_{f}$ = 198km = 198000 m

∴Final Energy( $E_{f}$ ) = $\frac{-GMm}{2(R+h_{f}) }$

a) The energy that should be added should be the difference in the energy of initial and final states -

∴ ΔE = $E_{f}$ - $E_{i}$

= $\frac{GMm}{2}$ ( $\frac{1}{R+h_{i} }$ - $\frac{1}{R+h_{f} }$ )

Substituting ,

M = 6 × $10^{24}$ kg

m = 1036 kg

G = 6.67 × $10^{-11}$

R = 6400000 m

$h_{i}$ = 98000 m

$h_{f}$ = 198000 m

We get ,

ΔE = 484.438 MJ

b) Change in Kinetic Energy (ΔKE) = $\frac{1}{2}$ m[ $v_{f} ^{2}$ - $v_{i} ^{2}$ ]

= $\frac{GMm}{2}$ [ $\frac{1} {R+h_{f} }$ - $\frac{1} {R+h_{i} }$ ]

= -ΔE

= - 484.438 MJ

c) Change in Potential Energy (ΔPE) = GMm[ $\frac{1}{R+h_{i} }$ - $\frac{1}{R+h_{f} }$ ]

= 2ΔE

= 968.907 MJ

3 0

3 years ago

A television remote control uses infrared light with a wavelength of 940 nm. What is the frequency of the light?

Ronch [10]

Answer:

Frequency = 3.19 * 10^14 Hz or 1/s

Explanation:

Relationship b/w frequency and wavelength can be expressed as:

C = wavelength * frequency, where c is speed of light in vacuum which is 3.0*10^8 m/s.

Now simply input value (but before that convert wavelength into meters to match the units, you do this by multiply it by 10^-9 so it will be 940*10^-9)

3.0 * 10^8 = Frequency * 940 x 10^-9

Frequency = 3.19 * 10^14 Hz or 1/s

5 0

2 years ago

What happens to the force attraction of the distance two objects is increased?

Fed [463]

Answer:

Explanation:

The attraction weakens. Two objects that are farther apart are not drawn together as strongly as if they were close together.

5 0

2 years ago

Planet 1 orbits Star 1 and Planet 2 orbits Star 2 in circular orbits of the same radius. However, the orbital period of Planet 1

hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

The mass of Star 2 is Greater than the mass of Start 1. (This, if we suppose the masses of the planets are much smaller than the masses of the stars)

Explanation:

First of all, let's draw a free body diagram of a planet orbiting a star. (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can build an equation with the sum of forces between the start and the planet.

$\sum F=ma$

We know that the force between two bodies due to gravity is given by the following equation:

$F_{g} = G\frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{r^{2}}$

in this case we will call:

M= mass of the star

m= mass of the planet

r = distance between the star and the planet

G= constant of gravitation.

so:

$F_{g} =G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}$

Also, if the planet describes a circular orbit, the centripetal force is given by the following equation:

$F_{c}=ma_{c}$

where the centripetal acceleration is given by:

$a_{c}=\omega ^{2}r$

where

$\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}$

Where T is the period, and $\omega$ is the angular speed of the planet, so:

$a_{c} = ( \frac{2\pi}{T})^{2}r$

or:

$a_{c}=\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}}$

so:

$F_{c}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

so now we can do the sum of forces:

$\sum F=ma$

$F_{g}=ma_{c}$

$G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

in this case we can get rid of the mass of the planet, so we get:

$G\frac{M}{r^{2}}=(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})$

we can now solve this for $T^{2}$ so we get:

$T^{2} = \frac{4\pi ^{2}r^{3}}{GM}$

We could take the square root to both sides of the equation but that would not be necessary. Now, the problem tells us that the period of planet 1 is longer than the period of planet 2, so we can build the following inequality:

$T_{1}^{2}>T_{2}^{2}$

So let's see what's going on there, we'll call:

$M_{1}$ = mass of Star 1

$M_{2}$ = mass of Star 2

So:

$\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{1}}>\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{2}}$

we can get rid of all the constants so we end up with:

$\frac{1}{M_{1}}>\frac{1}{M_{2}}$

and let's flip the inequality, so we get:

$M_{2}>M_{1}$

This means that for the period of planet 1 to be longer than the period of planet 2, we need the mass of star 2 to be greater than the mass of star 1. This makes sense because the greater the mass of the star is, the greater the force it applies on the planet is. The greater the force, the faster the planet should go so it stays in orbit. The faster the planet moves, the smaller the period is. In this case, planet 2 is moving faster, therefore it's period is shorter.

6 0

2 years ago