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kirza4 [7]
3 years ago
6

Why does mass not affect the period of a pendulum?

Physics
2 answers:
OverLord2011 [107]3 years ago
7 0
Time period can be written as 2π √L/g .....so it doesn't depend on mass !
PilotLPTM [1.2K]3 years ago
6 0
As the mass increases so will the force on the pendulum.

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Answer:

B

Explanation:

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Hypothetically speaking, if an object were located at the center of the Earth, the gravitational force on that object due to the
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D. ) The force would be zero newtons

Explanation:

Because

If you are at the center of the earth, gravity is zero because all the mass around you is pulling "up" (every direction there is up!)

So F=mg so if g is zero F is also zero

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A car accelerates from rest to 19 m/s in 6 seconds. What is the acceleration of the car?
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We are designing a crude propulsion mechanism for a science fair demonstration. One of our team members stands on a skateboardth
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Answer:

greater speed will be obtained for the elastic collision,

Explanation:

To answer this exercise we must find the speed that the sail acquires after each impact.

Let's start by hitting a ball of clay.

The system is formed by the candle and the clay balls, therefore the forces during the collision are internal and the moment is conserved.

initial instant. before the crash

         p₀ = m v₀

where m is the mass of the ball and vo its initial velocity, we are assuming that the candle is at rest

final instant. After the crash

the mass of the candle is M

         p_f = (m + M) v

the moment is preserved

          p₀ = p_f

          m v₀ = (m + M) v

          v = \frac{m}{m+M} \ v_o

for when n balls have collided

          v = \frac{m}{n \ m + M}  v₀

Now let's analyze the case of the bouncing ball (elastic)

     

initial instant

        p₀ = m v₀

final moment

        p_f = m v_{1f} + M v_{2f}

        p₀ = p_f

        m v₀ = m v_{1f} + M v_{2f}

       m (v₀ - v_{1f}) = M v_{2f}

this case corresponds to an elastic collision whereby the kinetic energy is conserved

        K₀ = K_f

        ½ m v₀² = ½ m v_{1f}² + ½ M v_{2f}²

        v₁ = v_{1f}            v₂ = v_{2f}

        m (v₀² - v₁²) = M v₂²

let's use the identity

         (a² - b²) = (a + b) (a-b)

we write our equations

         m (v₀ - v₁) = M v₂                       (1)

         m (v₀ - v₁) (v₀ + v₁) = M v₂²

let's divide these equations

         v₀ + v₁ = v₂

Let's look for the final speeds

we substitute in equation 1

          m (v₀ - v₁) = M (v₀ + v₁)

          v₀ (m -M) = (m + M) v₁

          v₁ = \frac{m-M}{m + M}   v₀

we substitute in equation 1 to find v₂

            \frac{M}{m}  v₂ = v₀ -  \frac{m-M}{m+M}   v₀

            v₂ = \frac{m}{M}  ( 1 - \frac{m-M}{m+M} ) \ v_o

            v₂ = \frac{m}{M}  ( \frac{2M}{m+M} ) \ \ v_o

            v₂ = \frac{2m}{m +M}  \ v_o  

Let's analyze the results for inelastic collision with each ball that collides with the sail, the total mass becomes larger so the speed increase is smaller and smaller.

In the case of elastic collision, the increase in speed is constant with each ball since the total mass remains invariant.

Consequently, greater speed will be obtained for the elastic collision, that is, the ball will bounce.

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