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sertanlavr [38]
3 years ago
9

3. If the radius of Earth decreased, with no change in mass, your weight would

Physics
1 answer:
m_a_m_a [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The weight of the person would increase

Explanation:

The Universal Law of Gravitation gives the magnitude of the force between the masses of two objects (m1 and m2) separated a given distance "d" as:

F_g=G\,\frac{m_1*m_2}{d^2}

where G is the universal gravitational constant.

Our weight on Earth is this force between the Earth (of mass M) and ourselves (our mass m) at a distance that is the Earth's radius R:

Weight=G\frac{M*m}{R^2}

Now, if we keep all the values equal (mass of the Earth M and our mass m) except for the distance between the center of the Earth and our center of gravity (the radius of the Earth), we are going to have now a smaller radius (r) in the formula above:

Weight=G\frac{M*m}{r^2}

and dividing by a smaller number (r is smaller than R), will render a larger quotient. This means that the actual force (weight) will become larger, so the weight would clearly increase.

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PLEASE Please HELP ME...
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

girl this easy ask yo teacher for help lol

7 0
3 years ago
How can an object overcome static friction?
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

Applying enough force in one direction to move the object, making kinetic energy.

Explanation:

Simpleness

4 0
3 years ago
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
3 years ago
Convert 30.0 degrees Celsius into Kelvin
frutty [35]

Answer:

303.15K

Explanation:

the formula for converting celsius into kelvin is adding 273.15 to the number

4 0
2 years ago
A fish tank is a cube of size L × L × L, where L = 1 m, filled with water. Find
Murljashka [212]

At the bottom of the tank :

P = ρgH

P = (1000 kg/m³)(10 m/s²)(1 m)

P = 10000 N/m²

F = P • A

F = (10000 N/m²)(1 m²)

F = 10000 N

At the side of the tank :

Pav = ½ρgH

Pav = ½(1000 kg/m³)(10 m/s²)(1 m)

Pav = 5000 N/m²

F = P • A

F = (5000 N/m²)(1 m²)

F = 5000 N

3 0
2 years ago
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