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Kisachek [45]
3 years ago
12

Why is soft iron used for the core of an electromagnet?

Physics
2 answers:
aliina [53]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Because of the high permeability and high saturation level of holding magnetism.

Explanation:

Soft iron always used in the core of an electromagnet because of the following reason which are discussed below.

  • Permeability: These magnets are highly permeable means they can gain magnetism when current is passes through them and instantly loose magnetism after removal of current.
  • High saturation level: The property of these soft magnets are they have the high value of saturation means they can hold high level of magnetism without easily saturating.
Tanzania [10]3 years ago
3 0
The soft iron<span> inside the coil makes the magnetic field stronger because it becomes a magnet itself when the current is flowing. </span>Soft iron<span> is </span>used<span> because it loses its magne</span>
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49. A block is pushed across a horizontal surface with a
nata0808 [166]

Answer:

(a) 37.5 kg

(b) 4

Explanation:

Force, F = 150 N

kinetic friction coefficient = 0.15

(a) acceleration, a = 2.53 m/s^2

According to the newton's second law

Net force = mass x acceleration

F - friction force = m a

150 - 0.15 x m g = m a

150 = m (2.53 + 0.15 x 9.8)

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(b) As the block moves with the constant speed so the applied force becomes the friction force.

F = \mu m g \\\\150 = \mu\times 37.5\\\\\mu = 4

8 0
3 years ago
A thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel is subjected to an internal gauge pressure, p=75 psip=75 psi. It had a wall thickness
Mekhanik [1.2K]

To solve this problem we must apply the concept related to the longitudinal effort and the effort of the hoop. The effort of the hoop is given as

\sigma_h = \frac{Pd}{2t}

Here,

P = Pressure

d = Diameter

t = Thickness

At the same time the longitudinal stress is given as,

\sigma_l = \frac{Pd}{4t}

The letters have the same meaning as before.

Then he hoop stress would be,

\sigma_h = \frac{Pd}{2t}

\sigma_h = \frac{75 \times 8}{2\times 0.25}

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And the longitudinal stress would be

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\sigma_l = \frac{75\times 8}{4\times 0.25}

\sigma_l = 600Psi

The Mohr's circle is attached in a image to find the maximum shear stress, which is given as

\tau_{max} = \frac{\sigma_h}{2}

\tau_{max} = \frac{1200}{2}

\tau_{max} = 600Psi

Therefore the maximum shear stress in the pressure vessel when it is subjected to this pressure is 600Psi

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3 years ago
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PilotLPTM [1.2K]
Besides ambitious, it would be 184.6 mi
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Answer:

Explanation:

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4 0
2 years ago
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What is the final position of an object that travel 5 meters/ second for 10 seconds?
Naddik [55]

Answer:

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