Perform the operation of 147.02 / 0.338, and report the result with the proper number of significant figures

A horizontal rectangular surface has dimensions 2.80 cm by 3.20 cm and is in a uniform magnetic field that is directed at an ang

koban [17]

Answer:

magnitude of the magnetic field 0.692 T

Explanation:

given data

rectangular dimensions = 2.80 cm by 3.20 cm

angle of 30.0°

produce a flux Ф = 3.10 × $10^{-4}$ Wb

solution

we take here rectangular side a and b as a = 2.80 cm and b = 3.20 cm

and here angle between magnitude field and area will be ∅ = 90 - 30

∅ = 60°

and flux is express as

flux Ф = $\int \vec{B}.d\vec{A}$ .................1

and Ф = BA cos∅ ............2

so B = $\frac{\phi }{Acos\theta }$

and we know

A = ab

so

B = $\frac{\phi }{abcos\theta }$ ..............3

put here value

B = $\frac{3.10\times 10^{-4} }{2.80 \times 10^{-2}\times 3.20 \times 10^{-2}\times cos60}$

solve we get

B = 0.692 T

8 0

3 years ago

Aloop of wire of area 71 cm^2 is placed with its plane parallel to a 16 mt magnetic field. the loop is then rotated so that its

kkurt [141]

Answer:

Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.

Explanation:

The average EMF in the coil is equal to

$\displaystyle \frac{\text{Final Magnetic Flux} - \text{Initial Magnetic Flux}}{2}$ ,

Why does this formula work?

By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\Phi$ through the coil.

$\displaystyle \epsilon(t) = \frac{d}{dt}(\Phi(t))$ .

Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt$ .

However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t} \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \int_0^{t} \frac{d}{dt}\Phi(t)\cdot dt = \Phi(t) - \Phi(0)$ .

Hence the equation

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \frac{\Phi(t)- \Phi(0)}{t}$ .

Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in $\Phi(t)$ won't matter.

Apply this formula to this question. Note that $\Phi$ , the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation

$\Phi = B \cdot A \cdot N \; \sin{\theta}$ .

For this question,

$B = \rm 16\; mT = 16\times 10^{-3}\; T$ is the strength of the magnetic field.
$A = \rm 71\; cm^{2} = 71\times \left(10^{-2}\right)^2 \; m^{2}$ is the area of the coil.
$N = 1$ is the number of loops in the coil.
$\theta$ is the angle between the field lines and the coil.
At $\rm 0\;s$ , the field lines are parallel to the coil, $\theta = 0^{\circ}$ .
At $\rm 0.7\; s$ , the field lines are perpendicular to the coil, $\displaystyle \theta = 90^{\circ}$ .