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harkovskaia [24]
2 years ago
9

if i release one steel ball from the top of a ramp and the other ball from the 40cm mark will they have the same acceleration?

Physics
1 answer:
solniwko [45]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yes, they will also have the same acceleration. Acceleration is controlled by the amount of weight (def. amount of gravitational pull on a given object) that the ball has. For one ball to accelerate quicker than the other, it would need a propulsion element, which it does not.

Explanation:

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What is the mass of a 735-N weight on Earth?
Allisa [31]
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3 years ago
What is the acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of itsthree engines can provide 100,000 n of force?
sergey [27]

The acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of its three engines can provide 100,000N of force is 0.167m/s².

<h3>How to calculate acceleration?</h3>

The acceleration of a freight train can be calculated using the following formula:

Force = mass × acceleration

According to this question, a 600,000kg freight train can produce 100,000N of force. The acceleration is as follows:

100,000 = 600,000 × a

100,000 = 600,000a

a = 0.167m/s²

Therefore, the acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of its three engines can provide 100,000N of force is 0.167m/s².

Learn more about acceleration at: brainly.com/question/12550364

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6 0
2 years ago
How fast (in rpm) must a centrifuge rotate if a particle 7.3 cm from the axis of rotation is to experience an acceleration of 1.
guajiro [1.7K]

The formula we use here is:

radial acceleration = ω^2 * R <span>

110,000 * 9.81 m/s^2 = ω^2 * 0.073 m 
<span>ω^2 = 110,000 * 9.81 / 0.073
ω = 3844.76 rad/s </span></span>

<span>and since: ω = 2pi*f  --> f = ω/(2pi)</span><span>
f = 3844.76 / (2pi) = 611.91 rps = 611.91 * 60 rpm 
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5 0
3 years ago
If the man pushes with a force of 2000N and friction is 500N, what is the resultant force?
alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

Explanation:

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2000 - 500 = 1500 N to the right

3 0
3 years ago
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