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pogonyaev
2 years ago
12

A _____ provides rapid calculus removal by converting very-high-frequency sound waves into mechanical energy and reduces operato

r hand fatigue.
Physics
1 answer:
sveticcg [70]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The Ultrasonic Scaler

Explanation:

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If a motorcycle accelerates uniformly from rest at 5 m / s2, how long does it take for it to reach a speed of 20 m / s.
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

4 seconds

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 0 m/s

v = 20 m/s

a = 5 m/s²

Find: t

v = at + v₀

20 m/s = (5 m/s²) t + 0 m/s

t = 4 s

6 0
3 years ago
Are the units of the formula ma = mv2/2 dimensionally consistent? Select the single best answer.
Vesnalui [34]

To solve the problem we will simply perform equivalence between both expressions. We will proceed to place your units and develop your internal operations in case there is any. From there we will compare and look at its consistency

ma = \text{Mass}\times \text{Acceleration}

ma = kg \cdot \frac{m}{s^2}

At the same time we have that

\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \text{Mass}\times \text{Velocity}^2

\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = kg ( \frac{m}{s})^2

\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = kg \cdot \frac{m^2}{s^2}

Therefore there is not have same units and both are not consistent and the correct answer is B.

5 0
3 years ago
NEES HELP!!!!
OLga [1]

Answer:

Doppler Theory

Explanation:

it's a theory regarding the change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer.

6 0
2 years ago
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
3 years ago
When you are on a huge water slide what forces are there? when will you experience a net force?
Pani-rosa [81]
When you are on a huge water slide, the force present as you slide is the gravitational force. It is because the gravity enables you to slide down the water slide. The net force is the overall forces of the object, so as you slide the water slide, you may experience the net force once you slide down with the gravity and water sliding you down.
3 0
3 years ago
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