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4 years ago

A wave has a wavelength of 10mm and a frequency of 5 hz what is the speed?

2 answers:

4 0

thats not one of the answers that is provided so its pretty much wrong unless you meant 0.50 mm/s other than that its wrong.

geniusboy [140]4 years ago

3 0

V=fλ
v=5*0.01
Therefore v=0.05

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Which part of the brain controls body temperature

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Determine the angle of an incline that would yield a constant velocity, given the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.10.

azamat

Answer:

$\theta=5.71^{o}$

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem, we mus start by drawing a free body diagram of the given situation (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can now do a sum of forces in the x and y direction. Let's start with the y-direction:

$\sum F_{y}=0$

$-W_{y}+N=0$

$N=W_{y}$

so:

$N=mgcos(\theta)$

now we can go ahead and do a sum of forces in the x-direction:

$\sum F_{x}=0$

the sum of forces in x is 0 because it's moving at a constant speed.

$-f+W_{x}=0$

$-\mu_{k}N+mg sen(\theta)=0$

$-\mu_{k}mg cos(\theta)+mg sen(\theta)=0$

so now we solve for theta. We can start by factoring mg so we get:

$mg(-\mu_{k} cos(\theta)+sen(\theta))=0$

we can divide both sides into mg so we get:

$-\mu_{k} cos(\theta)+sen(\theta)=0$

this tells us that the problem is independent of the mass of the object.

$\mu_{k} cos(\theta)=sen(\theta)$

we now divide both sides of the equation into $cos(\theta)$ so we get:

$\mu_{k}=\frac{sen(\theta)}{cos(\theta)}$

$\mu_{k}=tan(\theta)$

so we now take the inverse function of tan to get:

$\theta=tan^{-1}(\mu_{k})$

so now we can find our angle:

$\theta=tan^{-1}(0.10)$

$\theta=5.71^{o}$

8 0

3 years ago

A vector starts at the point (0.0) and ends at (2,-7) what is the magnitude of the displacement

Leto [7]

Answer:

|x| = √53

Explanation:

We are told that the vector starts at the point (0.0) and ends at (2,-7) .

Thus, magnitude of displacement is;

|x| = √(((-7) - 0)² + (2 - 0)²)

|x| = √(49 + 4)

|x| = √53

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3 years ago

A force of 40N is applied to a 28 g mass, what is the acceleration? (round to the hundredths place)

Leno4ka [110]

Answer:

1428.6m/s²

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Force applied on the body = 40N

Mass of the body = 28g

1000g = 1kg

28g will therefore be 0.028kg

Unknown:

Acceleration = ?

Solution:

To solve this problem, we use the expression derived from Newton's second law of motion.

Force = mass x acceleration

Insert the parameters and solve;

40 = 0.028 x acceleration

Acceleration = $\frac{40}{0.028}$ = 1428.6m/s²

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3 years ago

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3 years ago