Initially its moving with tail wind so here the speed of wind will support the motion of the plane
so we can say



now when its moving with head wind we can say that wind is opposite to the motion of the plane



now by using above two equations we can find speed of palne as well as speed of wind


Answer:
Train accaleration = 0.70 m/s^2
Explanation:
We have a pendulum (presumably simple in nature) in an accelerating train. As the train accelerates, the pendulum is going move in the opposite direction due to inertia. The force which causes this movement has the same accaleration as that of the train. This is the basis for the problem.
Start by setting up a free body diagram of all the forces in play: The gravitational force on the pendulum (mg), the force caused by the pendulum's inertial resistance to the train(F_i), and the resulting force of tension caused by the other two forces (F_r).
Next, set up your sum of forces equations/relationships. Note that the sum of vertical forces (y-direction) balance out and equal 0. While the horizontal forces add up to the total mass of the pendulum times it's accaleration; which, again, equals the train's accaleration.
After doing this, I would isolate the resulting force in the sum of vertical forces, substitute it into the horizontal force equation, and solve for the acceleration. The problem should reduce to show that the acceleration is proportional to the gravity times the tangent of the angle it makes.
I've attached my work, comment with any questions.
Side note: If you take this end result and solve for the angle, you'll see that no matter how fast the train accelerates, the pendulum will never reach a full 90°!
The circumference of a circle is (2π · the circle's radius).
The length of a semi-circle is (1π · the circle's radius) =
(π · 14.8) = 46.5 (rounded)
(The unit is the same as whatever the unit of the 14.8 is.)
Answer: The first electromagnet has a more powerful current than
the second
Explanation:
Since the two electromagnets contain the same types of magnets and wires. If the magnet In the first moves much faster than the second. Therefore:
The first electromagnet has a more powerful current than the second
Because the induced EMF is proportional to the induced current.
Where the induced EMF depends on the speed of the magnet according to the formula below
EMF = BVL
So, increase in speed of the magnet will cause more powerful induced current and emf