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Lady_Fox [76]
3 years ago
7

The environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has two programs that make a business an energy star. They are the following:

Engineering
1 answer:
valkas [14]3 years ago
7 0

The environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has two programs that make a business an energy star which are Energy Star program and WaterSense.

<h3>What is environmental Protection Agency (EPA)?</h3>

This is an agency in the United States, designed to enforce regulations that protect the environment and natural resources.

The Agency does the following :

  1. Protects people and the environment from significant health risks.
  2. Sponsors and conducts research.
  3. Develop ideas towards protecting the environment.

Hence, the environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has two programs that make a business an energy star which are Energy Star program and WaterSense.

Learn more about environmental Protection Agency (EPA) here :  brainly.com/question/20299710

#SPJ1

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Air modeled as an ideal gas enters a turbine operating at steady state at 1040 K, 278 kPa and exits at 120 kPa. The mass flow ra
gladu [14]

Answer:

a) T_{2}=837.2K

b) e=91.3 %

Explanation:

A) First, let's write the energy balance:

W=m*(h_{2}-h_{1})\\W=m*Cp*(T_{2}-T_{1})  (The enthalpy of an ideal gas is just function of the temperature, not the pressure).

The Cp of air is: 1.004 \frac{kJ}{kgK} And its specific R constant is 0.287 \frac{kJ}{kgK}.

The only unknown from the energy balance is T_{2}, so it is possible to calculate it. The power must be negative because the work is done by the fluid, so the energy is going out from it.

T_{2}=T_{1}+\frac{W}{mCp}=1040K-\frac{1120kW}{5.5\frac{kg}{s}*1.004\frac{kJ}{kgk}} \\T_{2}=837.2K

B) The isentropic efficiency (e) is defined as:

e=\frac{h_{2}-h_{1}}{h_{2s}-h_{1}}

Where {h_{2s} is the isentropic enthalpy at the exit of the turbine for the isentropic process. The only missing in the last equation is that variable, because h_{2}-h_{1} can be obtained from the energy balance  \frac{W}{m}=h_{2}-h_{1}

h_{2}-h_{1}=\frac{-1120kW}{5.5\frac{kg}{s}}=-203.64\frac{kJ}{kg}

An entropy change for an ideal gas with  constant Cp is given by:

s_{2}-s_{1}=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})-Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})

You can review its deduction on van Wylen 6 Edition, section 8.10.

For the isentropic process the equation is:

0=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})-Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})\\Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})

Applying logarithm properties:

ln((\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R} )=ln((\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})^{Cp} )\\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R}=(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})^{Cp}\\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R/Cp}=(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})\\T_{2}=T_{1}(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R/Cp}

Then,

T_{2}=1040K(\frac{120kPa}{278kPa})^{0.287/1.004}=817.96K

So, now it is possible to calculate h_{2s}-h_{1}:

h_{2s}-h_{1}}=Cp(T_{2s}-T_{1}})=1.004\frac{kJ}{kgK}*(817.96K-1040K)=-222.92\frac{kJ}{kg}

Finally, the efficiency can be calculated:

e=\frac{h_{2}-h_{1}}{h_{2s}-h_{1}}=\frac{-203.64\frac{kJ}{kg}}{-222.92\frac{kJ}{kg}}\\e=0.913=91.3 %

4 0
4 years ago
Question about transformers and generators
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

woah

Explanation:

7 0
4 years ago
Why the velocity potential Φ(x,y,z,t) exists only for irrotational flow
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

\omega_y,\omega_x,\omega_Z  all are zero.

Explanation:

We know that if flow is possible then it will satisfy the below equation

\dfrac{\partial u}{\partial x}+\dfrac{\partial v}{\partial y}+\dfrac{\partial w}{\partial z}=0

Where u is the velocity of flow in the x-direction ,v is the velocity of flow in the y-direction and w is the velocity of flow in z-direction.

And velocity potential function \phi given as follows

 u=-\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial x},v=-\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial y},w=-\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial z}

Rotationality of fluid is given by \omega

\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=\omega_Z

\frac{\partial v}{\partial z}-\frac{\partial w}{\partial y}=\omega_x

\frac{\partial w}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial u}{\partial z}=\omega_y

So now putting value in the above equations ,we will find

\omega =\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial x},u=\frac{\partial \phi }{\partial x},

\omega_y=\dfrac{\partial^2 \phi }{\partial z\partial x}-\dfrac{\partial^2 \phi }{\partial z\partial x}

So \omega_y=0

Like this all \omega_y,\omega_x,\omega_Z all are zero.

That is why  velocity potential flow is irroational flow.

5 0
4 years ago
Help plsss fast!!!!!!
Semmy [17]

Answer:

1. Cast iron or aluminum

2. aluminum (first blank) iron(second blank)

3. aluminum

4. dry sleeve

5. Wet sleeve

6. matching operation that cuts a series of holes through the block for crankshaft bearing

8 0
3 years ago
A cylindrical rod 100 mm long and having a diameter of 10.0 mm is to be deformed using a tensile load of 27,500 N. It must not e
mash [69]

Answer:

The steel is a candidate.

Explanation:

Given

P = 27,500 N

d₀ = 10.0 mm = 0.01 m

Δd = 7.5×10 ⁻³ mm (maximum value)

This problem asks that we assess the four alloys relative to the two criteria presented. The first  criterion is that the material not experience plastic deformation when the tensile load of 27,500 N is  applied; this means that the stress corresponding to this load not exceed the yield strength of the material.

Upon computing the stress

σ = P/A₀ ⇒ σ = P/(π*d₀²/4) = 27,500 N/(π*(0.01 m)²/4) = 350*10⁶ N/m²

⇒ σ = 350 MPa

Of the alloys listed, the Ti and steel alloys have yield strengths greater than 350 MPa.

Relative to the second criterion, (i.e., that Δd be less than 7.5 × 10 ⁻³  mm), it is necessary to  calculate the change in diameter Δd for these four alloys.

Then we use the equation   υ = - εx / εz = - (Δd/d₀)/(σ/E)

⇒  υ = - (E*Δd)/(σ*d₀)

Now, solving for ∆d from this expression,

∆d = - υ*σ*d₀/E

For the Aluminum alloy

∆d = - (0.33)*(350 MPa)*(10 mm)/(70*10³MPa) = - 0.0165 mm

0.0165 mm > 7.5×10 ⁻³ mm

Hence, the Aluminum alloy is not a candidate.

For the Brass alloy

∆d = - (0.34)*(350 MPa)*(10 mm)/(101*10³MPa) = - 0.0118 mm

0.0118 mm > 7.5×10 ⁻³ mm

Hence, the Brass alloy is not a candidate.

For the Steel alloy

∆d = - (0.3)*(350 MPa)*(10 mm)/(207*10³MPa) = - 0.005 mm

0.005 mm < 7.5×10 ⁻³ mm

Therefore, the steel is a candidate.

For the Titanium alloy

∆d = - (0.34)*(350 MPa)*(10 mm)/(107*10³MPa) = - 0.0111 mm

0.0111 mm > 7.5×10 ⁻³ mm

Hence, the Titanium alloy is not a candidate.

7 0
3 years ago
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