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1 year ago

Why does the arrow labeled F norm point upward?

Physics

2 answers:

ohaa [14]1 year ago

8 0

The answer is D I think

jenyasd209 [6]1 year ago

5 0

I think the answer is d too

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In each of two coils the rate of change of the magnetic flux in a single loop is the same. The emf induced in coil 1, which has

irinina [24]

Answer:

Coil 2 have 235 loops

Explanation:

Given

The number of loops in coil 1 is n ₁= 159

The emf induced in coil 1 is ε ₁ = 2.78 V

The emf induced in coil 2 is ε ₂ = 4.11 V

Let

n ₂ is the number of loops in coil 2.

Given, the emf in a single loop in two coils are same. That is,

ϕ ₁/n ₁= ϕ ₂ n ₂⟹ 2.78/159 = 4.11/ n ₂

n₂= $\frac{159 * 4.11}{2.78}$

n₂=235

Therefore, the coil 2 has n ₂= 235 loops.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

1. I drop a penny from the top of the tower at the front of Fort Collins High School and it takes 1.85 seconds to hit the ground

Svetradugi [14.3K]

You have three known variables:

Acceleration - $9.8m/s^2$
Time - $1.85s$
Initial Velocity - $0m/s$

For the first part of your question:

$v = u + at

v = (0)+(9.8)(1.1)

v = 10.78 m/s v=11 m/s (2 significant figures)$

For the second part of your question:

$v=u+at

v=(0)+(9.8)(1.85)
v=18.13 m/s

$

This still needs to be converted to m/h:

$18.13m/s = 18.13\times 3600 metres/h=65628 metres/hour

65628 metres/hour = 65628\div1600 mi/h = 40.7925 mi/h

= 41 mi/hr (2 significant figures)
$

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

1. How much energy is needed just to melt 0.56kg of ice at 0◦ C?

ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

This will require 266.9 of heat energy.

Explanation:

To calculate the energy required to raise the temperature of any given substance, here's what you require:The mass of the material, m The temperature change that occurs, ΔT The specific heat capacity of the material,

(which you can look up). This is the amount of heat required to raise 1 gram of that substance by 1°C.

Here is a source of values of

c for different substances:

Once you have all that, this is the equation:

Q=m×c×ΔT(Q is usually used to symbolize that heat required in a case like this.)For water, the value of c is 4.186g°C So, Q=750×4.186×85=266=858=266.858

5 0

2 years ago

Consider two thin, coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b푏 (a

Wittaler [7]

Answer:

electric potential, V = -q(a²- b²)/8π∈₀r³

Explanation:

Question (in proper order)

Consider two thin coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b (b < a) and charges q and -q, respectively. Determine the potential at large distances from the rings

<em>consider the attached diagram below</em>

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the outer charged ring with radius a is as given below

Va = q/4π∈₀ [1/(a² + b²)¹/²]

$Va = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Also

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the inner charged ring with radius b is

$Vb = \frac{-q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Sum of the potential at point p is

V = Va + Vb

that is

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } + \frac{-q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }]$

the expression below can be written as the equivalent

$\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + a^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

likewise,

$\frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + b^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

hence,

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

1/r is common to both equation

hence, we have it out and joined to the 4π∈₀ denominator that is outside

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

by reciprocal rule

1/a² = a⁻²

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} - {(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2}]$

by binomial expansion of fractional powers

where $(1+a)^{n} =1+na+\frac{n(n-1)a^{2} }{2!}+ \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)a^{3}}{3!}+...$

if we expand the expression we have the equivalent as shown

${(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

also,

${(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

the above equation becomes

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [((1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } ) - (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } - 1+\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } +\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]\\\\V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } -\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$