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1 year ago

X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.

Engineering

1 answer:

Lemur [1.5K]1 year ago

4 0

It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
#SPJ1

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A Pelton wheel is supplied with water from a lake at an elevation H above the turbine. The penstock that supplies the water to t

gayaneshka [121]

Answer:

Following are the proving to this question:

Explanation:

$\frac{D_1}{D} = \frac{1}{(2f(\frac{l}{D}))^{\frac{1}{4}}}$

using the energy equation for entry and exit value :

$\to \frac{p_o}{y} +\frac{V^{2}_{o}}{2g}+Z_0 = \frac{p_1}{y} +\frac{V^{2}_{1}}{2g}+Z_1+ f \frac{l}{D}\frac{V^{2}}{2g}$

where

$\to p_0=p_1=0\\\\\to Z_0=Z_1=H\\\\\to v_0=0\\\\AV =A_1V_1 \\\\\to V=(\frac{D_1}{D})^2 V_1\\\\\to V^2=(\frac{D_1}{D})^4 V^{2}_{1}$

$= (\frac{1}{(2f (\frac{l}{D} ))^{\frac{1}{4}}})^4\ V^{2}_{1}\\\\$

$= \frac{1}{(2f (\frac{l}{D}) )} \ V^{2}_{1}\\$

$\to \frac{p_o}{y} +\frac{V^{2}_{o}}{2g}+Z_0 =\frac{p_1}{y} +\frac{V^{2}_{1}}{2g}+Z_1+ f \frac{l}{D}\frac{V^{2}}{2g} \\\\$

$\to 0+0+Z_0 = 0 +\frac{V^{2}_{1} }{2g} +Z_1+ f \frac{l}{D} \frac{\frac{1}{(2f(\frac{l}{D}))}\ V^{2}_{1}}{2g} \\\\\to Z_0 -Z_1 = +\frac{V^{2}_{1}}{2g} \ (1+f\frac{l}{D}\frac{1}{(2f(\frac{l}{D}) )} ) \\\\\to H= \frac{V^{2}_{1}}{2g} (\frac{3}{2}) \\\\\to \frac{V^{2}_{1}}{2g} = H(\frac{3}{2})$

L.H.S = R.H.S

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2 years ago

When an object is moving, we use the following coefficient for friction calculations a)-μk b)-μs c)-γk d)- γs

Reika [66]

Answer: $\mu_{k}$

Explanation:

We use kinetic friction when a body is moving i.e. $\mu_{k}$ for calculations.

Static friction is used when a body is in rest while kinetic friction is used when a body is moving and its value is quite low as compared to static friction .

Static friction value increases as we apply more force while kinetic friction occurs when there is relative motion between bodies.

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3 years ago

What is the pressure at the bottom of a 25 ft volume of hydraulic fluid with a weight density of 55 lb/ft3 a. 114.6 psi b. 1375p

Assoli18 [71]

Answer:

d) 9.55 psi

Explanation:

pressure at the bottom is =ρgh

weight density is ρg=55 lb/ft³

h=25ft

pressure at the bottom is = $55\times 25$

=1375psf

1 ft = 12 inch

pressure at bottom = $\frac{1375}{12^2}$

= 9.55 psi

so, answer will be option (d) which is 9.55 psi

3 0

3 years ago

At the instant under consideration, the hydraulic cylinder AB has a length L = 0.75 m, and this length is momentarily increasing

Inessa [10]

Answer:

vB = - 0.176 m/s (↓-)

Explanation:

Given

(AB) = 0.75 m

(AB)' = 0.2 m/s

vA = 0.6 m/s

θ = 35°

vB = ?

We use the formulas

Sin θ = Sin 35° = (OA)/(AB) ⇒ (OA) = Sin 35°*(AB)

⇒ (OA) = Sin 35°*(0.75 m) = 0.43 m

Cos θ = Cos 35° = (OB)/(AB) ⇒ (OB) = Cos 35°*(AB)

⇒ (OB) = Cos 35°*(0.75 m) = 0.614 m

We apply Pythagoras' theorem as follows

(AB)² = (OA)² + (OB)²

We derive the equation

2*(AB)*(AB)' = 2*(OA)*vA + 2*(OB)*vB

⇒ (AB)*(AB)' = (OA)*vA + (OB)*vB

⇒ vB = ((AB)*(AB)' - (OA)*vA) / (OB)

then we have

⇒ vB = ((0.75 m)*(0.2 m/s) - (0.43 m)*(0.6 m/s) / (0.614 m)

⇒ vB = - 0.176 m/s (↓-)

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3 years ago

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lakkis [162]

Answer:

both statement is correct

Explanation:

Flywheel engine uses to reduce fluctuations.

And

FlexPlate is a metal disk that connects the output from the engine to the input of the torque converter. This will replace the flywheel

so that both statement is correct

4 0

3 years ago