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2 years ago

15

Is it possible to code the impact force using an accelerometer?

1 answer:

Naddika [18.5K]2 years ago

6 0

Yes, it possible to code the impact force using an accelerometer.

Accelerometers can be used to measure vibration on cars, machines, buildings, process control systems and safety installations

<h3>What is an Accelerometer ?</h3>

An accelerometer is a device that measures the vibration, or acceleration of motion of a structure.

The force caused by vibration or a change in motion (acceleration) causes the mass to "squeeze" the piezoelectric material which produces an electrical charge that is proportional to the force exerted upon it.

They can also be used to measure seismic activity, inclination, machine vibration, dynamic distance and speed with or without the influence of gravity.

Learn more about Accelerometer meter here:

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Can someone please help me?

Alina [70]

Answer:

D would be it

Explanation:

cause none of the rest Makes sense to the book of the picture and I'm 100% sure =)

6 0

3 years ago

Planets are not uniform inside. Normally, they are densest at the center and have decreasing density outward toward the surface.

SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

a = 9.94 m/s²

Explanation:

given,

density at center= 1.6 x 10⁴ kg/m³

density at the surface = 2100 Kg/m³

volume mass density as function of distance

$\rho(r) = ar^2 - br^3$

r is the radius of the spherical shell

dr is the thickness

volume of shell

$dV = 4 \pi r^2 dr$

mass of shell

$dM = \rho(r)dV$

$\rho = \rho_0 - br$

now,

$dM = (\rho_0 - br)(4 \pi r^2)dr$

integrating both side

$M = \int_0^{R} (\rho_0 - br)(4 \pi r^2)dr$

$M = \dfrac{4\pi}{3}R^3\rho_0 - \pi R^4(\dfrac{\rho_0-\rho}{R})$

$M = \pi R^3(\dfrac{\rho_0}{3}+\rho)$

we know,

$a = \dfrac{GM}{R^2}$

$a = \dfrac{G( \pi R^3(\dfrac{\rho_0}{3}+\rho))}{R^2}$

$a =\pi RG(\dfrac{\rho_0}{3}+\rho)$

$a =\pi (6.674\times 10^{-11}\times 6.38 \times 10^6)(\dfrac{1.60\times 10^4}{3}+2.1\times 10^3)$

a = 9.94 m/s²

7 0

3 years ago

If the force acting on a body of mass 40 k.g is doubled by how much will the acceleration change

disa [49]

Answer:

Explanation:

Ignoring friction, the acceleration will double

F = ma

2F = m(2a)

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3 years ago

A 0.12-kg metal rod carrying a current of current 4.1 A glides on two horizontal rails separation 6.3 m apart. If the coefficien

Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

The magnetic field is $B = 8.20 *10^{-3} \ T$

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mass of the metal rod is $m = 0.12 \ kg$

The current on the rod is $I = 4.1 \ A$

The distance of separation(equivalent to length of the rod ) is $L = 6.3 \ m$

The coefficient of kinetic friction is $\mu_k = 0.18$

The kinetic frictional force is $F_k = 0.212 \ N$

The constant speed is $v = 5.1 \ m/s$

Generally the magnetic force on the rod is mathematically represented as

$F = B * I * L$

For the rod to move with a constant velocity the magnetic force must be equal to the kinetic frictional force so

$F_ k = B* I * L$

=> $B = \frac{F_k}{L * I }$

=> $B = \frac{0.212}{ 6.3 * 4.1 }$

=> $B = 8.20 *10^{-3} \ T$

7 0

3 years ago

Little Red Riding Hood goes to Grandma's house, which is located 4,900 m away to

tatuchka [14]

Time = distance divided by speed
4,900 divide 1.5 = 3266.67

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4 years ago