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2 years ago

How should the magnetic field lines be drawn for the magnets shown below?

1 answer:

5 0

Option B is the correct answer that show how magnetic field lines should be drawn for the magnets shown in the figure.

<h3>What is Magnetic Line of Force ?</h3>

The Magnetic Line of Force of a magnet is defined as the line along which a free N - pole would tend to move if placed in the field of a line such that the tangent to it at any point gives the direction of the field at that point.

When the two unlike poles are placed to each other, there will be attraction. And when the two like poles are placed to each other, there will be repulsion. The reason is that the line of force tend to move from the north pole to the south pole.

From the given diagram, the two magnets are of the same south pole. They are of like pole and there will be repulsion between the two magnets.

Therefore, Option B is the correct answer that show how magnetic field lines should be drawn for the magnets shown in the figure.

Learn more about Magnetic Field Lines here: brainly.com/question/17011493

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Two isolated, concentric, conducting spherical shells have radii R1 = 0.500 m and R2 = 1.00 m, uniform charges q1=+2.00 µC and q

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Complete Question

The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

a E = $1.685*10^3 N/C$

b E = $36.69*10^3 N/C$

c E = 0 N/C

d $V = 6.7*10^3 V$

e $V = 26.79*10^3V$

f V = $34.67 *10^3 V$

g $V= 44.95*10^3 V$

h $V= 44.95*10^3 V$

i $V= 44.95*10^3 V$

Explanation:

From the question we are given that

The first charge $q_1 = 2.00 \mu C = 2.00*10^{-6} C$

The second charge $q_2 =1.00 \muC = 1.00*10^{-6}$

The first radius $R_1 = 0.500m$

The second radius $R_2 = 1.00m$

$Generally \ Electric \ field = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{q_1+\ q_2}{r^2}$

And $Potential \ Difference = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1 }{r}+\frac{q_2}{R_2} ]$

The objective is to obtain the the magnitude of electric for different cases

And the potential difference for other cases

Considering a

r = 4.00 m

$E = \frac{((2+1)*10^{-6})*8.99*10^9}{16}$

$= 1.685*10^3 N/C$

Considering b

$r = 0.700 m \ , R_2 > r > R_1$

This implies that the electric field would be

$E = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0}\frac{q_1}{r^2}$

This because it the electric filed of the charge which is below it in distance that it would feel

$E = 8*99*10^9 \frac{2*10^{-6}}{0.4900}$

= $36.69*10^3 N/C$

Considering c

r = 0.200 m

=> $r$

The electric field = 0

This is because the both charge are above it in terms of distance so it wont feel the effect of their electric field

Considering d

r = 4.00 m

=> $r > R_1 >r>R_2$

Now the potential difference is

$V =\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} \frac{q_1 + \ q_2}{r} = 8.99*10^9 * \frac{3*10^{-6}}{4} = 6.7*10^3 V$

This so because the distance between the charge we are considering is further than the two charges given

Considering e

r = 1.00 m $R_2 = r > R_1$

$V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{1.00} \frac{1.00*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 26.79 *10^3 V$

Considering f

$r = 0.700 m \ , R_2 > r > R_1$

$V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.700} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 34.67 *10^3 V$

Considering g

$r =0.500\m , R_1 >r =R_1$

$V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V$

Considering h

$r =0.200\m , R_1 >R_1>r$

$V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{R_1} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V$

Considering i

$r =0\ m \ , R_1 >R_1>r$

$V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{R_1} +\frac{q_2}{R_2} ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V$