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tia_tia [17]
3 years ago
15

The invention of the microscope made it possible for people to discover

Physics
2 answers:
Sliva [168]3 years ago
8 0

d. cells It’s 100% right

Katyanochek1 [597]3 years ago
4 0
D cells!!!!!!!!!!!!
hope that helps
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cycling at 13.0 m/s on your new aero carbon fiber bike, how much times would it take a pro cyclist to ride in 120 km? Give your
sp2606 [1]

We have that the time in seconds, minutes, and hours is

t=1.083*10^{-4}s

T_{min}=1.805*10^{-6}min

T_{hours}=3.0083*10^{-8}hours

From the Question we are told that

Velocity v=13.0m/s

Distance d=120 km

Generally the equation for the Time  is mathematically given as

t=\frac{13}{120*10^3}\\\\t=1.083*10^{-4}s

Therefore

T_{min}=1.083*10^{-4}s/60

T_{min}=1.805*10^{-6}min

And

T_{hours}=T_{min}/60

T_{hours}=3.0083*10^{-8}hours

For more information on this visit

brainly.com/question/12319416?referrer=searchResults

4 0
3 years ago
O que levou a filosofia pensar em artes?
vredina [299]

Answer:

idk

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The most common purpose for fracking in the u.s is to get
sveta [45]
Natural gas is the answer.
5 0
3 years ago
The force of attraction between a ball is F=.........×10^-¹¹
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

4.45×10¯¹¹ N

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Mass of ball (M₁) = 4 Kg

Mass of bowling pin (M₂) = 1.5 Kg

Gravitational constant (G) = 6.67×10¯¹¹ Nm²/Kg²

Distance apart (r) = 3 m

Force of attraction (F) =?

The force of attraction between the ball and the bowling pin can be obtained as follow:

F = GM₁M₂ / r²

F = 6.67×10¯¹¹ × 4 × 1.5 / 3²

F = 4.002×10¯¹⁰ / 9

F = 4.45×10¯¹¹ N

Therefore, the force of attraction between the ball and the bowling pin is 4.45×10¯¹¹ N

8 0
3 years ago
The spring of a spring gun has force constant k = 400 N/m and negligible mass. The spring is compressed 6.00 cm and a ball with
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

A) v = 6.93 m/s

B) v = 4.9 m/s

C) x_m = 0.015m

D) v_max = 5.2 m/s

Explanation:

We are given;

x = 6 cm = 0.06 m

k = 400 N

m = 0.03 kg

F = 6N

A) from work energy law, work dome by the spring on ball which now became a kinetic energy is;

Ws = K.E = ½kx²

Similarly, kinetic energy of ball is;

K.E = ½mv²

So, equating both equations, we have;

½kx² = ½mv²

Making v the subject gives;

v = √(kx²/m)

Plugging in the relevant values to give;

v = √((400 × 0.06²)/0.03)

v = √48

v = 6.93 m/s

B) If there is friction, the total work is;

Ws = ½kx² - - - (1)

Work of the ball is;

Wb = KE + Wf

So, Wb = ½mv² + fx - - - (2)

Combining both equations, we have;

½mv² + fx = ½kx²

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

(½ × 0.03 × v²) + (6 × 0.06) = ½ × 400 × 0.06²

0.015v² + 0.36 = 0.72

0.015v² = 0.72 - 0.36

v² = 0.36/0.015

v = √24

v = 4.9 m/s

C) The speed is greatest where the acceleration stops i.e. where the net force on the ball is zero. (ie spring force matches 6.0N friction)

So, from F = Kx;

(x is measured into barrel from end where F = 0)

Thus; 6.0 = 400x

x_m = 6/400

x_m = 0.015m from the end after traveling 0.045m

D) Initial force on ball = (Kx - F) =

[(400 x 0.06) - 6.0] = 18N

Final force on ball = 0N

Mean Net force on ball = ½(18 + 0)

Mean met force, F_m = 9N

Net Work Done on ball = KE = 9N x 0.045m = 0.405 J

Thus;

½m(v_max)² = 0.405J

(v_max)² = 2 x 0.405/0.03

(v_max)² = 27

v(max) = √27

v_max = 5.2 m/s

6 0
3 years ago
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