Answer: 4.98 m/s
Explanation:
You solve these kinetic energy, potential energy problems by using the fact P.E.+ K.E. = a constant as long as friction is ignored.
PEi = 0 in this case
KEi = ½mVi² = PEf+KEf = mghf + ½mVf²
½1210*8.31² = 1210*9.8*2.26 + ½1210*Vf²
½1210*Vf² = ½1210*8.31² - 1210*9.8*2.26
Vf² = 8.31² - 2*9.8*2.26 = 4.98² so Vf = 4.98m/s
Answer:
21
Explanation: its actually 20.85 but i guess they round to 21
Answer:
168.57 mV
Explanation:
Initial magnetic flux = BA , B magnetic field and A is area of loop
= .35 x 3.14 x .37²
= .15 Weber
Final magnetic flux
= - .2 x 3.14 x .37²
= - .086 Weber
change in flux
.15 + .086
= .236 Weber
rate of change of flux
= .236 / 1.4
= .16857 V
= 168.57 mV
Area of a circle is
A= pi r^2
so
500m^2 = 3.14 r2
500/pi = r ^2
152.1549...=r^2
square root both sides
r=12.61566...
d=2r
d=25.2
to 3 sig fig
